9 votes

Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?

The King James Version translators were careful to translate as near as possible to the original. In this case, the Hebrew spellings are different. In Jeremiah 32:28, "Nebuchadrezzar" is ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,687
8 votes

Did Daniel & his friends submit to King Nebuchadnezzar because of Jeremiah prophecy in Jer 27?

Jeremiah's advice to submit to the King of Babylon must indeed have seemed like traitorous advice to many patriotic Judeans, something like a contemporary prophet telling Americans they should submit ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
4 votes

Better translation of Jeremiah 33:16?

There is an important difference between a very literal translation and a translation accurately conveying the meaning of the text. Jer 33:16 is a perfect example of this. We observe the following: ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Jeremiah 36:30 - meaning of “sit”?

The MT for this verse is: לָכֵן כֹּה אָמַר יְהוָה עַל יְהוֹיָקִים מֶלֶךְ יְהוּדָה לֹא יִהְיֶה לּוֹ יוֹשֵׁב עַל כִּסֵּא דָוִד וְנִבְלָתוֹ תִּהְיֶה מֻשְׁלֶכֶת לַחֹרֶב בַּיּוֹם וְלַקֶּרַח בַּלָּיְלָה ...
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim al Yahud's user avatar
3 votes

KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?

I am flummoxed by the OP's question - an extensive survey of sites like this one: https://biblehub.com/parallel/jeremiah/34-16.htm all show that almost all versions have either "you" or &...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

How were the false prophets in Jeremiah 23:27 able to make God's people forget His name?

The rest of the chapter has some good information on how the false prophets made God's people forget His name. Summary: They used their God given positions as shepherds to lie to God's people and ...
David D's user avatar
  • 1,158
2 votes

How were the false prophets in Jeremiah 23:27 able to make God's people forget His name?

That last line is an important clue. "Their fathers forgot my name for Baal" would mean "they were worshipping Baal instead of me". Now we know that these prophets were claiming to ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes

How best to understand the NLT translation of Jeremiah 34:18?

That's exactly the functional meaning of the verse as translated by the NLT so precisely. JFB commentary states: passed between the parts thereof—The contracting parties in the "covenant" (...
Michael16's user avatar
  • 4,750
2 votes

How best to understand the NLT translation of Jeremiah 34:18?

I surmise that the oath which accompanied the making of a covenant was something like; "May the Lord do the same to me, and more also if I do not keep the words of this oath". The meaning of ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes

Were women viewed similar to property in the OT?

This particular verse is not about men treating women as property, because it is the Lord God who is speaking. As their God and their Creator, he has the right to dispose of everything. The people ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote

Did Daniel & his friends submit to King Nebuchadnezzar because of Jeremiah prophecy in Jer 27?

According to Daniel chapter 1 1 In the third year of the reign of Jehoiakim king of Judah, > Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon came to Jerusalem and besieged it. 2 And the Lord delivered Jehoiakim ...
David D's user avatar
  • 1,158
1 vote

Do these passages Dt. 12 , Jer. 7 and Judges 11 hint that human sacrifice was offered to the LORD more often than we like to think?

The altar in Hinnom is explained in Jeremiah ch19 vv4-5 as "They have forsaken me... burning incense to other gods... built the high places of Baal to burn their sons". That's also how I ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote

Meaning of the Potter in forming the Clay

I have upvoted James Adijuah's answer, but I would add this: The the analogy of the pot, like all analogies, is not perfect because clay has no free will, as we do and Israel did. So technically, the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Meaning of the Potter in forming the Clay

The allegory of the Potter and the clay, described in Jeremiah 18:1-12, tells of the ignorance of Israelites, who as the Lord's creation, wanted to overrule their Creator. One has to be careful, when ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
  • 3,028
1 vote

Meaning of the Potter in forming the Clay

I think you're thinking of this passage: This is the word that came to Jeremiah from the Lord: 2 “Go down to the potter’s house, and there I will give you my message.” 3 So I went down to the potter’...
James Ajiduah's user avatar
1 vote

Did Israel have a choice in their disobedience?

Romans 11:36 "For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen". Short answer: Yes God gives and withholds grace, He gives or withholds hearts to ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
  • 8,755
1 vote

Jeremiah 19:9 - Did God make Israel eat their own children?

Taken literally, the text of Jeremiah 19:9 does say that God would cause the people of Judah (not Israel, see 19:3) to engage in cannibalism, thereby making them break God's own law. However, the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Were women viewed similar to property in the OT?

Ancient Jewish and Israelite culture was both agrarian and patriarchal. Roman customs were less agrarian but extremely patriarchal to the point of misogynistic. Let us observe the following: The ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 91.3k
1 vote

Better translation of Jeremiah 33:16?

In my opinion, the best translation among the proposals: In that day Judah will be saved, and Jerusalem will live in safety. And their motto will be 'The Lord is our righteousness!' Jeremiah 33:16 ...
Betho's's user avatar
  • 1,296
1 vote

KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?

The difference is one of the few significant and various continuous editorial revisions or differences in the edition of the KJV. Unlike the modern Bible version editions, the difference in KJV are ...
Michael16's user avatar
  • 4,750
1 vote

KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?

Wycliffe (1382), Coverdale (1535), Matthews Bible (1537), Great Bible (1539), Geneva Bible (1560), and Bishop's Bible (1568) all have 'whom ye'. See Textus Receptus Bibles. Webster's (1833) and Young'...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 29k
1 vote

KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?

Your question is partly about what that version is supposed to say. The simple answer is to check the printed Bibles, and my copies of what I call the Authorised Version (that's KJV in American) say &...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote
Accepted

In Jer. 6:14 is it referring to shalom (שָׁלֹ֑ום) being used as a greeting?

It is the prophets who are saying "Peace, peace". It is one of their faults. As a complaint against them it works best if the point is that they are falsely promising "peace" to ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote

How does Jeremiah 2:7 say when they entered Canaan they defiled the land?

The answer to this question in Jer 2:7 of how Israel "defiled my land" is actually answered later in the same book and elsewhere: Jer 3:2 - “Lift up your eyes to the barren heights and see. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Jeremiah 36:30 - meaning of “sit”?

The prophecy of Jer 36:30 was fulfilled because Jehoiakim's son, Jehoiachin, never really reigned in view of the following facts: he lasted less much less than 1 year on the throne had never even had ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 91.3k
1 vote

Jeremiah 30:7 - "That day is so great there is none like it" - is this the day of the Lord?

The meaning of the prophecy in Jer 30 is explicitly stated in the opening verses: 1 This is the word that came to Jeremiah from the LORD: 2 “This is what the LORD, the God of Israel, says: ‘Write in ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 91.3k
1 vote

Jeremiah 30:7 - "That day is so great there is none like it" - is this the day of the Lord?

It often helps to begin as close to the text as we can, avoiding bringing in ideas that the author may not have understood or intended. If we approach a text with a fixed idea in mind about what a key ...
Steve can help's user avatar
  • 5,546
1 vote

What is meant by Jeremiah 31:2

Looking at the various interpretations and commentaries of Jeremiah 31:22 can lead to a sense of awe at the richness of the word of God, such that the depth of revelation in a single verse of ...
Nhi's user avatar
  • 2,776
1 vote

Is Jeremiah 32:40 a direct reference to the New Covenant?

To understand why Jeremiah 32:40 addresses the New Covenant, and not the Old Covenant, and why scholars recognize this, it is helpful to consider precisely what each of these covenants really is. The ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,687
1 vote

Did Josephus misinterpret Ezekiel 12:13?

Ezekiel and Jeremiah are complimentary to each other. They both speak on the destruction of Jerusalem, the conquest by Babylon and the deportation of the people. In the narrative, Zedekiah (see Jer ...
Neil's user avatar
  • 11

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