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12 votes
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Did David not defile himself by taking back Michal in 2 Samuel 3?

Looking at the texts of Deuteronomy 24 and Jeremiah 3, I'd suggest the key aspect of these verses are divorce: "...her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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10 votes

Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?

The King James Version translators were careful to translate as near as possible to the original. In this case, the Hebrew spellings are different. In Jeremiah 32:28, "Nebuchadrezzar" is ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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8 votes

Did Daniel & his friends submit to King Nebuchadnezzar because of Jeremiah prophecy in Jer 27?

Jeremiah's advice to submit to the King of Babylon must indeed have seemed like traitorous advice to many patriotic Judeans, something like a contemporary prophet telling Americans they should submit ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
7 votes
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Why does the BHS suggest היום for האישׁ in Jeremiah 20:16?

The BHS of Jeremiah was edited by Wilhelm Rudolph, a distinguished Alttestamentler, and the author of several important commentaries -- among them, a commentary on Jeremiah. It was first published in ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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6 votes

Why does God call Nebuchadnezzar his servant?

Nebuchadnezzar did God service when he besieged Jerusalem in 605 BC and The Lord gave Jehoiakim into his hand, with part of the vessels of the house of God, Daniel 1:2 and II Kings 24:1. ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes

Did David not defile himself by taking back Michal in 2 Samuel 3?

Scripture comments after Michal despised David for his exuberance at the bringing in of the ark (2 Samuel 6:20-23) : Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death. [2 ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
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Why is Jeremiah's name spelled differently in the book of Jeremiah?

Originally the ancient Hebrew pronunciation of "jeremiah" was Yirmeyahu יִרְמְיָ֖הוּ ben cHilqiyahu בֶּן־חִלְקִיָּ֑הוּ . The last letter of Yirmeyahu ( יִרְמְיָ֖הוּ ) is vav with Shuruk ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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6 votes

How can Jesus inherit David's throne since he's a descendent of Jehoiakim?

Jesus is not in the lineage of Jechoniah the cursed one! 30 Thus says the Lord: “Write this man down as childless, a man who shall not succeed in his days, for none of his offspring shall succeed in ...
Daniel Dahlberg's user avatar
5 votes

What does the "rod of an almond tree" in Jer 1:11 refer to?

Preamble Without vowel markings the Hebrew word for "almond" and one of their words for "watch" look the same, שקד. With the vowel markings, almond is שָׁקֵ֖ד (šā-qêḏ), and "...
enegue's user avatar
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5 votes

Why does God call Nebuchadnezzar his servant?

Every Servant is under authority: It is the core definition "Let every soul be subject to the governing authorities. For there is no authority except from God, and the authorities that exist are ...
Crushtone's user avatar
5 votes
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Is Jeremiah 9:23-24 a good example of chiasm?

No. The point of a "chiastic" structure is that there is some clear relationship between the matched and mirrored elements in the structure. Normally this is lexical (i.e., a repeated word), or ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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5 votes

Contradiction between Exodus 29:18 and Jeremiah 7:22

The passage from Jeremiah in context, is completely accurate: 21 Thus says the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel: “Add your burnt offerings to your sacrifices, and eat the flesh. 22 For in the day ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
5 votes
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JEHOVAH TSIDKENU - why is 'our' inserted in the English bible?

You bet there's a reason: omitting it would be ignoring the Hebrew. -enu is the first-person plural possessive suffix for a noun in the singular. Sounds like a lot, but it boils down to adding "our" ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
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5 votes
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What is the meaning of "it" in Jeremiah 19:5? "nor did it come into My mind". E.S.V

I think it is best to look at the idea/context, rather than strictly the words themselves, as it seems that this is one of those passages where the Hebrew does not translate easily into English. ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
5 votes

Why is Jeremiah so opposed to a Jewish settlement in Egypt?

God's decreed word God had decreed that they will be taken to Babylon and those who were repentant will survive by submitting to the Babylonian king and in later years will return back Jeremiah 29:10 ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
5 votes
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Is there any basis for thinking there could be a future modern-day application of the prophecy in Jeremiah 9:25-26?

The question is about God's punishment on nations that violate his covenant with Abraham and his descendants. That includes the descendants of Isaac, but nations other than Israel were also ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

The Potter's field reference in Matthew 27:9-10

Quoting from John Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible, "What seems best to solve this difficulty, is, that the order of the books of the Old Testament is not the same now, as it was formerly: the ...
Elem-Teach-w-Bach-n-Math-Ed's user avatar
4 votes
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In Jeremiah 29:8 what kind of dream was Israel not to listen to?

Should "have dreamed" be translated in 2nd, or 3rd Person Plural? "... you all have dreamed" ... or, "... they have dreamed"? The word is מַחְלְמִים, which is a masculine plural participle (which ...
b a's user avatar
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4 votes
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Why must a Hebrew slave who has to work six years only be released after the seventh year?

Deuteronomy 15:1 also uses the words מִקֵּץ שֶֽׁבַע שָׁנִים "at the end of seven years." The next verses (15:9) discuss someone who doesn't want to give a loan because "the seventh year is approaching....
b a's user avatar
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4 votes
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Why does the Prophet curse the day of his birth in Jeremiah 20:14?

Remember the superlatives and use of hyperbole by the Eastern poetry, expressing the feelings of the heart in strong imagery. Jeremiah suffered many persecutions, and rejection by the people he was ...
Gina's user avatar
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4 votes

Is Jeremiah 18:2 grammatically incorrect?

To make tblue's comment into an answer: What you see in Jeremiah 18:2 isn't a feminine ending, but a suffixed ה ah on the word שָׁמ sham "there". This suffix can be loosely translated as either ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
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4 votes
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Are there certain types of trees mentioned in Jeremiah 17:8?

The Hebrew word underlying the highlighted word in the question is כְּעֵ֣ץ, ka-es, (Biblehub) which is a preposition (translated 'like a') fused with the word עֵ֛ץ es which is the generic word in ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Why do Daniel 7:5 and Revelation 13:2 mention a bear, while Jeremiah 5:6 mentions a wolf?

We should recall that the inspired record uses two different types of prophecy: Literal with the occasional metaphor. In this type of prophecy, all the words used can be understood fairly literally, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

What does the loincloth image signify in Jeremiah 13:11?

The operative word, אֵזוֹר (ezor), translated "loincloth" (ESV) is used to decribe several things such as: a leather or linen belt, 2 Kings 1:8, Isa 5:27, 11:5, Eze 23;15 a waitband/sash/...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is Jeremiah 32:40 a direct reference to the New Covenant?

1. There is nothing unique about a covenant being eternal or everlasting. The Noahide Covenant is eternal (Gen 9:16) The Abrahamic Covenant is eternal (Gen 17:9, 13, 19) The Old Israelite Covenant is ...
Dottard's user avatar
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