Human nature can be tempted.
Divine nature cannot be tempted.
These two passages indicate the duality of nature possessed (uniquely) by Jesus of Nazareth.
These two natures cannot 'merge' or 'mingle'. They are two different things.
They unite only in the Person of Jesus Christ.
Passages in the Hebrew scripture use the word nasah of God and some of ...
In James 1:1 we read:
James, a bondservant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the
twelve tribes which are scattered abroad: Greetings. (Jam 1:1 NKJ)
This introductory greeting informs the readers that the writer is called 'James' and he considers himself to be a slave of both God and the Lord Jesus Christ. In itself, this greeting ...
The short answer to OP's question regarding the teaching in James 2:10:
Is it in the torah?
A much longer answer discusses James's teaching as derived from Jesus (depending on Douglas Moo), and the essentials are given there.
It is important to note, however, that this understanding of the law (i.e., breaking one bit is like breaking the ...
It sounds to me like the phrase χόρτου ἄνθος ("blossom/flower of the grass/meadow") is drawing on the Hebrew expression צִיץ הַשָׂדֶה, "blossom of the meadow", which is used several places in the TaNaKh as an expression of the passing of time and the ineluctability of our mortality. See Psalms 103:15-16, or Isaiah 40:6-8. I don't think it's referring ...
The humanity of man, inwardly, is as complex - and more so - than the body of man which is wondrously composed. 'I am fearfully and wonderfully made' says the Psalmist, 139:14.
But just as the internals of the body are not (visibly) compartmentalised (though the organs all have their own specialised functions) so the immaterial parts of humanity are varied ...
Sabaoth is the transliteration of tsavaot, which is the plural form of the hebrew word tsava. This word is the denominative of the verb tsiva, which means “go into battle, fight”
When taken as a noun, it means the units that go into battle and fight, and thus it can refer to armies, companies, groups of men that are going into battle.
From that basic ...
The question as posed by OP -- concerning aspects of the "πολύσπλαγχνος + οἰκτίρμων" pair in James 5:11 -- has all the seeds of its own answer. First, the relevant bit of text:
NA28 ... πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων.
NRSV ... the Lord is compassionate and merciful.
I'll take the interrelated sub-questions in a slightly different order.
The phrase "νόμου ἐλευθερίας μέλλοντες κρίνεσθαι" reads as "(the) law of freedom being about to be judged".
Where this "law of liberty" comes into being is from John 13:34,
A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I
have loved you, that ye also love one another.
Whereas the Law could be summed up in commandments,(Matt. 22:36-40) ...
James got the idea that "if you break one commandment, you break them all", right from Scripture of course.
Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.
-- Deuteronomy 27:26 KJV
And say thou unto them, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel; Cursed be the man that obeyeth not the words of ...
Yes, it is necessarily a question rather than a statement. The relevant part of the text (NA-28):
μὴ δύναται ἡ πίστις σῶσαι αὐτόν
Note the negative particle μὴ followed by an indicative verb (δύναται). Normally, the indicative verb is negated by the particle οὐ. LSJ describes οὐ as:
the negative of fact and statement, as μή of will and thought; οὐ ...
There are three ways to reconcile the two passages.
First, the word of the LORD came to Elijah in the third year. In the third year could mean at some time during the third year. For example, Scripture describes David's 7-year reign from Hebron as 7-years and 7-years and 6-months (ESV):
And the time that David reigned over Israel was forty years. He reigned ...
The above text should really be taken in conjunction with the context which follows in verse 12 of Ephesians 5, namely :
... it is a shame even to speak of those things which are done of them in secret.
Sins of the kind you mention are particularly personal and discretion is necessary. It would be highly inappropriate to discuss such matters with ...
The word that the ESV is translating as named is ὀνομαζέσθω (onomazesthō), a passive form of ὀνομάζω (onomazō).
In the passive voice, onomazō can mean to be known or be heard of.* An example of this can be found in Romans 15:20, which the ESV translates:
I make it my ambition to preach the gospel, not where Christ has already been named (ὅπου ὠνομάσθη ...
" Anyone who hates his brother commits murder" (1 John 3:15)
James 4:1-4 (NRSV)
4 "Those conflicts and disputes among you, where do they come from? Do
they not come from your cravings that are at war within you? 2 You
want something and do not have it; so you commit murder. And you covet
something and cannot obtain it; so you engage in disputes ...
The operative word in James 2:2 is indeed, συναγωγή (synagoge). However, this does not not necessarily imply that James is referring to Jewish synagogues. The word simply means "place of assembly", or "meeting", "gathering place"
For example the following versions translate this word as "meeting" or "assembly&...
Good question. One possibility is that you are complaining that the law has not properly judged and punished this brother. Think of how the elder brother begrudged his father's forgiveness of the prodigal when he returned. But I suspect we are missing something about Jewish legal interpretation here. The Law (Torah) is holy, the word of God, and by ...
James explains the reasoning employed in verse 10 in the immediately following verses:
For he who said, "Do not commit adultery," also said, "Do not murder."
Now if you do not commit adultery but do commit murder, you have
become a violator of the law. (Jas 2:11-12 ESV)
James is expressing the Jewish view (shared by Romans) that the law was ...
There are (at least) four issues that must be dealt with in order to sufficiently answer this question, and much ink has been spilled on all of these issues.
Issue 1: Context (and identification) of the scripture being cited
If the author of James is citing another text, then understanding the original context of the quoted passage may shed some light on ...
The New International Version and English Standard Version Study Bible notes both suggest the epistle was written for Jewish Christians.
"My brothers, as believers in our glorious Lord Jesus Christ..." (James 2:1).
"Be patient, then, brothers, until the Lord's coming... You too, be patient and stand firm, because the Lord's coming is near&...
The KJV, EGNT (Englishman's Greek New Testament interlinear), J N Darby, Young's Literal and Green's Literal all have 'the course of nature'.
The Wycliffe has 'the wheel of our birth', which is a translation of the Vulgate. The Douay Rheims, also from the Vulgate, has 'the wheel of our nativity'.
Tyndale has 'setteth afire all that we have of nature'.
Luke 17:5-10 (DRB) And the apostles said to the Lord: Increase our faith. 6 And the Lord said: If you had faith like to a grain of mustard seed, you might say to this mulberry tree, Be thou rooted up, and be thou transplanted into the sea: and it would obey you. 7 But which of you having a servant ploughing, or feeding cattle, will say to him, when he is ...
I think, for Jews there is no rough distinction between Faith and Works as we perceive it today.
For jews (the new testament writers are jews) to have faith is to trust in God and accept his leadership upon you and submit to his will. So faith is not something other than following God/Jesus and doing his commandmends. If anyone loves (believes in) Jesus he ...
Jesus has a higher standard or definition of sin.
Matthew 5:28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Matthew 15:19 For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false testimony, and slander.
To him, the thinking of a sin in concrete details is ...
This is essentially almost the same question as the OP's question in https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48780/does-ισα-το-θεου-refer-to-the-role-of-jesus-as-κυριos-in-philippians-26 My answer to that question should be viewed as background to this question.
I am going to suggest something that many find repugnant, not because it belittles ...
This is a simple grammatical question that is resolved by understanding how the Greek works.
Greek is a highly inflected language, especially the verbs. The verb in question here is: ἰάομαι (iaomai) = "I heal", in its lexical form; however, in James 5:16 it occurs in the form ἰαθῆτε (iathēte) = Verb - Aorist Subjunctive Passive - 2nd Person Plural;...
You've inspired an interesting scenario. I can imagine the following exchange between Paul and James in front of Peter at the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15:1-29).
James alluding to Genesis 22 asked Paul, "Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?"
Paul alluding to Genesis 15:6 replied, "Yes, ...
There would have been no conflict between Paul and James at the Jerusalem council because in their letters they cited Gen 15:6 for a different purpose.
Furthermore, "works" in Galatians means differently and has a different relationship with faith than in James. In Galatians "works" means obeying the law of Moses to be ...
If a head surgeon who owns a hospital, voluntarily and for a limited time steps down from his position informally, puts on a disguise, takes on a position as a resident student in his own hospital, does he stop possessing the deed to the hospital? Can he in the capacity of a resident start telling the doctors what to do? What if his secretary ...