15
votes
Accepted
What evidence is used to support the claim that Isaiah was written before the reign of King Cyrus?
Prima Facie evidence
The primary evidence is that the text claims to have been written by Isaiah the son of Amoz, and that his career spanned portions of the reigns of Kings Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and ...
- 16k
13
votes
In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
The Idea in Brief
The best translation in this passage is not “Lucifer” (or any similar translation with the image of the brightness of light), but instead “the one wailing aloud” falling from heaven....
- 16.6k
12
votes
Accepted
Does Isaiah 30:6 confirm pre-existence of fire breathing dragons?
The operative word in Isa 30:6 is שָׂרָף (saraph) = serpent/snake which only occurs seven times in the OT as follows:
Numbers 21:6, 8 - snakes with a fiery bite because of the burning sensation ...
- 95.3k
11
votes
Accepted
How did “Sirens” arise in the Septuagint translation of Isaiah 13:21?
Subsequent to the publication of Greek Myths and Christian Mystery, referenced by another answer, Manolis Papoutsakis made an ingenious hypothesis that may finally solve the mystery as to how the odd ...
- 4,202
11
votes
(Isaiah 3:12)’s declaration that women would rule over Jerusalem & Judah suggests that men became irresponsible and/or negligent about leadership jobs
The word "women" may not have been in the original Hebrew text. The Septuagint diverges greatly from the Masoretic Text, which was compiled several hundred years after the Septuagint:
O my ...
- 12.1k
10
votes
Does Isaiah 7:14 refer to a virgin?
The Sign of Immanuel in Isaiah 7:14 is the single most debated text in scripture. Dozens—literally dozens—of PhD dissertations have been written on it. There are three main questions inherent in the ...
- 121
10
votes
How can Isaiah 42:8 possibly be true, if John 13:31-32 is true?
This question is really only an apparent contradiction if one begins with the assumption that Jesus is not and never was YHWH of the OT. If this is a contradiction, then there are many more of them - ...
- 95.3k
9
votes
Accepted
Is there a break between Isaiah 39 and 40 in the Dead Sea Scrolls?
In a 2013 interview with Dr Peter Flint, who is an editor on the Isaiah scroll, he had the following to say about the issue:
Many scholastic studies tell us that the book of Isaiah was divided into ...
- 485
8
votes
In Isaiah 14:12 did the King James translator make a mistake using the term Lucifer to describe morning star?
When the KJV and other Reformation-era English translations were written, Lucifer was already seen as a proper noun for Satan
The OED gives five instances of Lucifer being used as a proper noun ...
- 2,976
8
votes
Does Matthew 3:3 prove the divinity of Christ, and, if so, how?
The Matthew 3:1-3 verses prove that John the Baptist was the one foretold to prepare the way of the Lord, as in Isaiah 40:3. This was also foretold in Malachi 3:1, hundreds of years before the ...
- 21.2k
8
votes
Accepted
From King Ahaz's perspective, how was the virgin-Immanuel sign fulfilled?
First, the Hebrew word עַלְמָה (almah) which is translated "virgin" in Isa 7:14 actually only means "damsel/maiden" - a woman of marriageable age who may or may not be a virgin ...
- 95.3k
7
votes
Accepted
Are nous and pneuma synonymous?
No, they are not synonymous.
In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in ...
- 26.2k
7
votes
Accepted
How does the OT quote in Galatians 4:27 relate to the situation in Galatia at that time?
First, What was the situation in Galatia at that time? Once that is established, the reason for the OT quote should become clearer.
On Paul and Barnabas’s first missionary tour, they had established ...
- 21.2k
7
votes
Was Immanuel a real name?
No wife .. No child!
To foretell the future of the House of Isreal, the prophets were using the metaphoric stories of the birthing of children and their metaphoric names. Let's see an example of that, ...
- 267
7
votes
Is the grammatical tense for Isaiah 9:6 irrelevant when it comes to debating whether Isaiah 9:6 refers to Jesus Christ, The Messiah?
First, Hebrew verbs do not have tense - there is no past, present and future tense in Hebrew. We have various forms of the Hebrew verbs such as Qal, Niphal, Pual, perfect, etc, for which English has ...
- 95.3k
7
votes
How did “Sirens” arise in the Septuagint translation of Isaiah 13:21?
This is a fantastic question, but one that appears to have no clear answer at this time. I've done some digging around and though I could not find an exact answer, I found some illuminating ...
- 71
6
votes
Accepted
In Isaiah 45:23 is God saying that all shall bow to God or to Cyrus?
כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ
For to me every knee shall bow
תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן
Every tongue shall confess.
The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") ...
- 26.2k
6
votes
How should Isaiah 59:19 be translated and understood?
why the double dashes? That's a "writing smell" to me suggesting the translators are in the weeds
What the translation means to say by including the dashes is And from the rising of the sun [they ...
- 3,738
6
votes
Has Isaiah 59:20 been changed in Roman 11:26?
The answer, I think, is no.
Paul quotes almost exclusively from the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament. In the Septuagint, Isaiah 59:20 reads
ἥξει ἐκ Σιὼν ὁ ῥυόμενος καὶ ἀποστρέψει ...
- 12.1k
6
votes
What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”?
The ESV comment on Isaiah 30:6-7 says this:
Isaiah mocks the Judean embassy carrying payment to the court of Egypt. The danger and difficulty of the journey, the expense of the purchase, and its ...
- 8,764
6
votes
Accepted
What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”?
What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”?
Isaiah 30:7 ESV
Egypt’s help is worthless and empty; therefore I have called her “Rahab who sits still.”
Rahab, a " symbolic sea monster," ...
- 13.7k
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