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15 votes
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What evidence is used to support the claim that Isaiah was written before the reign of King Cyrus?

Prima Facie evidence The primary evidence is that the text claims to have been written by Isaiah the son of Amoz, and that his career spanned portions of the reigns of Kings Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
12 votes
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Does Isaiah 30:6 confirm pre-existence of fire breathing dragons?

The operative word in Isa 30:6 is שָׂרָף (saraph) = serpent/snake which only occurs seven times in the OT as follows: Numbers 21:6, 8 - snakes with a fiery bite because of the burning sensation ...
Dottard's user avatar
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11 votes

(Isaiah 3:12)’s declaration that women would rule over Jerusalem & Judah suggests that men became irresponsible and/or negligent about leadership jobs

The word "women" may not have been in the original Hebrew text. The Septuagint diverges greatly from the Masoretic Text, which was compiled several hundred years after the Septuagint: O my ...
user33515's user avatar
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10 votes

Does Isaiah 7:14 refer to a virgin?

The Sign of Immanuel in Isaiah 7:14 is the single most debated text in scripture. Dozens—literally dozens—of PhD dissertations have been written on it. There are three main questions inherent in the ...
J.Hawk's user avatar
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10 votes

How can Isaiah 42:8 possibly be true, if John 13:31-32 is true?

This question is really only an apparent contradiction if one begins with the assumption that Jesus is not and never was YHWH of the OT. If this is a contradiction, then there are many more of them - ...
Dottard's user avatar
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9 votes
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Is there a break between Isaiah 39 and 40 in the Dead Sea Scrolls?

In a 2013 interview with Dr Peter Flint, who is an editor on the Isaiah scroll, he had the following to say about the issue: Many scholastic studies tell us that the book of Isaiah was divided into ...
L0ckz0r's user avatar
  • 485
8 votes

Has Isaiah 59:20 been changed in Roman 11:26?

The answer, I think, is no. Paul quotes almost exclusively from the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament. In the Septuagint, Isaiah 59:20 reads ἥξει ἐκ Σιὼν ὁ ῥυόμενος καὶ ἀποστρέψει ...
user33515's user avatar
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8 votes

Does Matthew 3:3 prove the divinity of Christ, and, if so, how?

The Matthew 3:1-3 verses prove that John the Baptist was the one foretold to prepare the way of the Lord, as in Isaiah 40:3. This was also foretold in Malachi 3:1, hundreds of years before the ...
Anne's user avatar
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8 votes
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From King Ahaz's perspective, how was the virgin-Immanuel sign fulfilled?

First, the Hebrew word עַלְמָה (almah) which is translated "virgin" in Isa 7:14 actually only means "damsel/maiden" - a woman of marriageable age who may or may not be a virgin ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes
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Are nous and pneuma synonymous?

No, they are not synonymous. In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in ...
Susan's user avatar
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7 votes
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How does the OT quote in Galatians 4:27 relate to the situation in Galatia at that time?

First, What was the situation in Galatia at that time? Once that is established, the reason for the OT quote should become clearer. On Paul and Barnabas’s first missionary tour, they had established ...
Anne's user avatar
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7 votes

Was Immanuel a real name?

No wife .. No child! To foretell the future of the House of Isreal, the prophets were using the metaphoric stories of the birthing of children and their metaphoric names. Let's see an example of that, ...
Gamal Thomas's user avatar
7 votes

Is the grammatical tense for Isaiah 9:6 irrelevant when it comes to debating whether Isaiah 9:6 refers to Jesus Christ, The Messiah?

First, Hebrew verbs do not have tense - there is no past, present and future tense in Hebrew. We have various forms of the Hebrew verbs such as Qal, Niphal, Pual, perfect, etc, for which English has ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes

What does it mean "the earth is God's footstool"?

Adding a visual to Dottard's excellent information. A stone relief of Xerxes seated on a throne. Note Xerxes feet are on a footstool. A lot has been written about ancient thrones and footstools and ...
David D's user avatar
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6 votes
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In Isaiah 45:23 is God saying that all shall bow to God or to Cyrus?

כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ For to me every knee shall bow תִּשָּׁבַע כָּל־לָשֽׁוֹן Every tongue shall confess. The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") ...
Susan's user avatar
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6 votes

How should Isaiah 59:19 be translated and understood?

why the double dashes? That's a "writing smell" to me suggesting the translators are in the weeds What the translation means to say by including the dashes is And from the rising of the sun [they ...
b a's user avatar
  • 3,756
6 votes

What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”?

The ESV comment on Isaiah 30:6-7 says this: Isaiah mocks the Judean embassy carrying payment to the court of Egypt. The danger and difficulty of the journey, the expense of the purchase, and its ...
Lesley's user avatar
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6 votes
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What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”?

What is the meaning of “Rahab who sits still.”? Isaiah 30:7 ESV Egypt’s help is worthless and empty; therefore I have called her “Rahab who sits still.” Rahab, a " symbolic sea monster," ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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6 votes

Isaiah 5:14 - Sheol/Hell personified as a woman?

The definition of the individual word matters, but we must also see how it is used in context of the scriptures. When we go back to the first vs of this chapter it becomes apparent that Israel was the ...
Gina's user avatar
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6 votes

Who is the Servant of God in Isaiah 42?

The Servant in Isaiah 42 is Israel (or Jacob), the nation God chose for blessing but had now fallen into sin and resultant exile. Yet despite haven fallen very low ("thou worm, Jacob") the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
6 votes

From King Ahaz's perspective, how was the virgin-Immanuel sign fulfilled?

Agreeing with Dan Fefferman about the sign, let me draw more attention also to the next verse. You see, the birth of the child was the sign, but it was not the promise (from Ahaz's viewpoint). It was ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
6 votes

Does the use of "El-Gibbor" in Isaiah 9:6 substantiate the Deity of Jesus (The Incarnation of God)?

The phrase אֵ֖ל גִּבֹּֽור (el gibbor), or similar, is applied to YHWH in the following places: Isa 10:21 - A remnant will return, the remnant of Jacob, to the mighty God. Jer 32:18 - You show loving ...
Dottard's user avatar
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