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Why are some verses only applied to Jesus in part?

To take the specific case of "out of Egypt I called my son," some commentators understand both the original (collective) meaning of Hosea 11:2 and the new (singular) meaning of Hebrews 1:5 ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Why are some verses only applied to Jesus in part?

Adding to the wise answer given by @Dottard, only the New Testament authors may safely interpret Scripture in this manner, as they were inspired by the Holy Spirit. John 14:26, John 16:13-14, 2 Tim 3:...
Rachel's user avatar
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Why are some verses only applied to Jesus in part?

We do not and should not do this (apply part of the verse only). Good exegesis should only be done by the authority of the inspired writings of the NT. Put another way, if the NT did not exist, we ...
Dottard's user avatar
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"My son" in Hosea 11:1 quoted in Matt. 2:14-15

Numbers 24:2-9, in the Septuagint text: “And Balaam lifted up his eyes, and sees Israel encamped by their tribes; and the Spirit of God came upon him. And he took up his parable and said: Balaam says ...
程修凡's user avatar

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