New answers tagged hermeneutical-approaches
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Does Judges 5:14 imply that Ephraim had distant Amalekite roots?
The tribes were commanded by God to destroy ALL of the ‘giants’ including women & children; but I believe that Ephraim was the one tribe that compromised God’s command by not destroying ALL of ...
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Why is Bilhah referred to as Jacob's wife in one passage and his concubine in another? can the hebrew be tranlsated it as woman and not wife
An answer based on definitions:
In Jewish tradition a "concubine" (Hebrew: פִּילֶגֶשׁ; "pilegesh") is a specific type of "wife." This is a different concept from oriental ...
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Hebrew referring to Adam & Eve in Genesis 1-3
The underlying meaning can be understood by going from hebrew to phonecian pictoral charachters. The first word in Genesis 1:1 references the son of God dying by his own hand on he cross.
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Why is Bilhah referred to as Jacob's wife in one passage and his concubine in another? can the hebrew be tranlsated it as woman and not wife
Abram sets precedence in Genesis 16. Gen 16:2-3, "So Sarai said to Abram, "See now, the LORD has restrained me from bearing children. Please, go in to my maid; perhaps I shall obtain ...
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Why is Bilhah referred to as Jacob's wife in one passage and his concubine in another? can the hebrew be tranlsated it as woman and not wife
1 When Rachel saw that she bore Jacob no children, she envied her sister. She said to Jacob, “Give me children, or I shall die!” 2 Jacob's anger was kindled against Rachel, and he said, “Am I in the ...
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Why is Bilhah referred to as Jacob's wife in one passage and his concubine in another? can the hebrew be tranlsated it as woman and not wife
The difficulty here is the VERY broad meaning of the Hebrew word translated, "wife" in Gen 30:4, viz, אִשָּׁה (ishshah) which is translated by the NASB with the following meanings:
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