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Did Job repent?

First a disclaimer: I offer this answer tentatively in the hope that others whose Hebrew is better than mine will weigh in. I suggest that @Niobius may be mistaken in saying that "repent makes ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

Based on the entire use of "call on the name" throughout Scripture, what do saints in Bible times believe about Jesus whenever they call on His name?

Confining this to the Greek text of the New Testament, and using Young's Analytical Concordance of the A.V., I would just make a few points. The first is so elementary, I hesitate to mention it, but ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Based on the entire use of "call on the name" throughout Scripture, what do saints in Bible times believe about Jesus whenever they call on His name?

It is true that to "call on the name of [XXX]" in the OT Hebrew idiom is to: recognize that entity as a god seek help from that entity, eg for salvation effectively to pray to the entity as ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Philippians 3:5—Paul’s description of his advantages “in the flesh"

It seems like this is what you are proposing as chiasm: 1a) Circumcised on the eighth day: This is a reference to the Jewish rite of circumcision, which was performed on male infants on their eighth ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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2 votes

Dissecting Psalm 22 metrically

Thanks for the question. I'm not poetically inclined, so to speak, but was intrigued by the question nonetheless. Was confused for a while because I kept trying to have it make sense by syllables in ...
tblue's user avatar
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0 votes

How can I use online bible resources to find a word in the Septuagint, and the Hebrew word it aligns with?

In applying the principles of hermeneutics, I frequently refer to interlinear Hebrew for the Masoretic text (https://biblehub.com/interlinear/), The Dead Sea Scrolls Bible by Abegg, Flint, & ...
Dieter's user avatar
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0 votes
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How can I use online bible resources to find a word in the Septuagint, and the Hebrew word it aligns with?

I bought a Septuagint Interlinear in hopes of doing the same thing. To my disappointment it was Greek/English rather then Greek/Hebrew. Here is a similar question with an answer. Critical Edition of ...
Hall Livingston's user avatar
0 votes

Relative particle

I open Strong's Exhaustive Concordance to WHO (or whom, which, or what) and look at the lines with no number following. In each of these cases there is no Hebrew word being translated. Where the ...
Hall Livingston's user avatar
-1 votes

What is the most likely form of John 1:1 in Hebrew?

When the OT uses the plural of elohim about a group of gods, the New Testament quotation of that verse show theous (gods) plural instead of theos (god) singular.Psalm 82:6; John 10:35; Exodus 32:1 and ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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0 votes

What is the most likely form of John 1:1 in Hebrew?

אֱלֹהִ֑ים is in Gen 1:1 thus uses for God in Hebrew New Testament translations. In the two Hebrew translations I'm looking at הַדָּבָר is "the Word." However, here is an interesting ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the most likely form of John 1:1 in Hebrew?

The Hebrew New Testament says: This can be transliterated as: Bereshit hayah hadavar vehadavar hayah et ha'Elohim vElohim hayah hadavar. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Elohim (...
Jason_'s user avatar
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10 votes
Accepted

Does Jesus mean "Salvation" or "God is Salvation"?

This is a linguistically tortuous story. Our English Jesus comes a transliteration of the Greek Ἰησοῦς (Iesous). In turn, the Greek Ἰησοῦς (Iesous) is a transliteration of the late Hebrew יֵשׁוּעַ (...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Does Jesus mean "Salvation" or "God is Salvation"?

My answer was taken from https://researchsupportsthetruth.wordpress.com/ “Originally, the name of the Messiah was pronounced Yehoshua. This is the Messiah’s original name and meant ‘Jehovah is ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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0 votes

Why are women and children viewed as plunder in Deuteronomy 20:14?

Relative to Dan Fefferman’s answer, I agree that it was a matter of culture in that era. Most nations wiped out the men, and took the women and children as slaves. Not everything in the Old Testament ...
AFrazier's user avatar
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0 votes

Why are women and children viewed as plunder in Deuteronomy 20:14?

Whether they are "plunder" or "spoils of war," the OP's question remains: why are women and children not treated as human beings, in the sense of having the same God-given human ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Why are women and children viewed as plunder in Deuteronomy 20:14?

This is somewhat of a mutual provision. The prior verse commands them to kill all the males of that city. Further, all the supplies are now the property of Israel. The city is essentially made ...
acc abb's user avatar
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2 votes

What is the significance of the term die, die ( מוֹת מוֹת, mûṯ mûṯ) at Genesis 2:17? Die repeated twice

While Dan's answer is basically correct, there are Hebrew grammatical structures based on repetition. The Hebrew text at the end of Genesis 2:27 has מֹ֥ות תָּמֽוּת, which the Qal infinitive absolute ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

What is the significance of the term die, die ( מוֹת מוֹת, mûṯ mûṯ) at Genesis 2:17? Die repeated twice

As this article explains, repetitions such as this serve as modifiers providing emphasis. The English equivalent would be "very," "every" or, in this case, "surely." ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
0 votes

Why do some translations render Genesis 2:5-7 as a chronology?

Answer This problem can be solved when we read Gen 2:5 onwards right after Gen 1:25 as explained below. This is because, in Genesis first chapter, a global (i.e., worldwide) creation of things are ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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2 votes

Translation of "wayhî" (וַֽיְהִי־) in Genesis 1

It is more common to have the form הָֽאָדָ֖ם לְנֶ֥פֶשׁ חַיָּֽה when חַיָּֽה means became, that is the לְ in front of what it becomes. Genesis 2:7 הָֽאָדָ֖ם לְנֶ֥פֶשׁ חַיָּֽה׃ "the man/Adam became ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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3 votes
Accepted

How do I know if a word in the English translation is implied by the Hebrew or Greek, or specifically stated?

The general question you are asking would require extensive detail when it comes to Hebrew. For example, Hebrew has imperfect and perfect tense, not past, present, and future tense. Present tense ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

How can I find all the Strongs Concordance words that originate from a certain root word?

Thanks to @Dottard's advice a couple of years ago, I switched from Blue Letter Bible to Biblehub's tools. For what you request, they have a link that includes a list of various uses of root words ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

How does וְ / הֶאֱמִן vᵊhe'ĕmin "believe" reflect the root word אָמַן 'āman?

First, the verb used in Gen 15:6 is אָמַן (aman) which has the fundamental meaning, "to confirm, support". It is a fundamental root word in Hebrew. A better translation is "trust"...
Dottard's user avatar
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0 votes

Why do some translations render Genesis 2:5-7 as a chronology?

It’s not unreasonable to suggest that Genesis 2 is a parallel creation account, but there are other reasons that it’s not. The DDS is fragmentary in Genesis 2, but Genesis 2:4-7 in the LXX reads as ...
Dieter's user avatar
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0 votes

KJV v.s. NLT translations

The OP asks about the translation of 1 Samuel 14:18. Translators are roughly equally divided as to whether it is the ark or the ephod here. This basically boils down to the Hebrew (Masoretic) vs. the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Translation of "wayhî" (וַֽיְהִי־) in Genesis 1

The word "way·hî-" is translated both "and there was" and "and it was" in Genesis 1. According to the DSS translation by Abegg, Flint, and Ulrich, the formula in the ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote

Exodus 14:23 - The Death of Pharaoh and the Singular Grammar Used

The Hebrew text in question (Exodus 14:23): וַיִּרְדְּפוּ מִצְרַיִם וַיָּבֹאוּ אַחֲרֵיהֶם כֹּל סוּס פַּרְעֹה רִכְבּוֹ וּפָרָשָׁיו אֶל־תּוֹךְ הַיָּם׃ The verbs in this verse (לרדוף and לבוא) are in ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
1 vote

What is Jeremiah 31:34a speaking about when promising a cessation of men teaching one another?

As is often the case, I am mystified by the JPS translation in Jer 31:34. The two words we should "heed" are: יָדַע (yada) = "to know". The JPS translation "heed" is ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

What is Jeremiah 31:34a speaking about when promising a cessation of men teaching one another?

Teaching about God will always continue, even after people fully know him and heed him. Moreover, children still need to be taught, even if their parents hear and obey. So we need not fear for the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

When Jesus read from the Scroll of Isaiah, did he translate it into Aramaic?

This question is posed as a historical question, so it deserves an accurate historical answer that treats Luke as a historical source. That's inevitably going to conflict with religious fundamentalist ...
vkjdfkj's user avatar
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1 vote

How does the NIV translation of Psalm 42:4 arrive at the phrase "under the protection of the Mighty One"?

I have the 1987 edition of the NIV, which does not have what your edition says: "...how I used to go with the multitude, leading the procession to the house of God." Psalm 42:4 NIV 1987 ...
Anne's user avatar
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