New International Version
God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.'"
Verb - Qal - Imperfect - first person common singular
Strong's Hebrew 1961: To fall out, come to pass, become, be
The Hebrew imperfect tense means that the action is ongoing ...
As ESV Study Bible states in the note on the passage of Malachi 2:16 (bold is mine), “The Hebrew text of this verse is one of the most difficult passages in the OT to translate, with the result that the two main alternative translations proposed for this verse are strongly disputed.”
So, to try to 'square the circle' we are now to start from some anchors, as ...
Is the Lord only talking about the future here? I don't think so.
From James E. Talmage:
The Hebrew Ehyeh, signifying I Am, is related in meaning and through
derivation with the term Yahveh or Jehovah...the Lord further revealed
Himself, saying 'I am the LORD: and I appeared unto Abraham, unto
Isaac, and unto Jacob...but by my name Jehovah was I not known ...
The Name stated in Exodus 3:14 is אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה Ehyeh asher ehyeh which translated in English means "I Will Be what I will be" | אֶ-הְיֶה E-hyeh is Qal imperfect, 1st person, singular.
Exodus / Shemot 3:14 [MT]
And Elohim said to Moshe, "I Will Be what I will be", and He said, "So shall you say to the children of ...
Spring flowers in the Holy Land
Looking at spring flowers in Israel one is likely to find images with flowers like the ones in the following image
While they look like poppies, technically these are anemones. More specifically, Anemone coronaria which are also known as "poppy anemone" due to their resemblance to poppies (yet they are not poppies). ...
New American Standard Bible
If he takes to himself another woman, he may not reduce her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights.
or marital rights [of his first wife].
Conjunctive waw | Noun - feminine singular construct | third person feminine singular
Strong's Hebrew 5772: Sexual
This is the only place where this word ...
Yes, the Latin Vulgate has the error. I have come across other errors in Jerome's Latin Vulgate which I put down to certain learned biases that seeped into the church at Rome over the first 300 - 400 hundred years.
The word "hu" from the original Hebrew is 3rd person singular and can be translated as either he, she, or it. (1) The word should ...
When we read this (Mal. 2.16) in the modern context, we can easily come to the conclusion that this portion addresses the tragedy of divorce, the ending of an earthly marriage. Yes, it can mean that, and divorce is something that God does not want for any of us.
In fact, Jesus addresses this by telling the Pharisees, that divorce was granted because of the ...
In II Kings 19:21 MT, The expressions (Leningrad Codex):
בתולת בת ציון
are noun phrases that are personifications, like "Mother Earth", "Father Time". Therefore, the NIV translation,
...Virgin Daughter Zion despises you and mocks you.
Daughter Jerusalem tosses her head as you flee.
Is spot on. Note that the NIV does not read ...
I would suggest an approach to meaning and context based on parallelism. Here are the 4 parallel parts of the verse
the flags/banners = constellations
In the context of astral objects, I would interpret the-flags as meaning the constellations which take on various shapes and help navigation at night. [I don't have any further evidence except ...
In the first english translation of the Bible in 1382, John Wycliffe decided to translate the tetragammon YHWH as "Lord", roughly following the Masoretic pronunciation tradition of "Adonai".
In the 1500s, Myles Coverdale when translating the Coverdale Bible, used all caps "LORDE", and then the KJV used small-caps "LORD"...
#1) The issue (as defined by the verse) is coming into the holies. One need not read any connection with seeing God's face, a technical term found in Exodus.
#2) "For with a cloud I will appear" Cloud of course connotes opaqueness, lack of transparency. The lack of transparency can be either in space of time. In space, it simply ...
Tl;dr: No, I don't think there's consensus about how the Hebrew "זַרְעָ֑הּ ה֚וּא" should be translated, but the pronoun "she" doesn't seem to be justified in my view and receives little scholarly support.
I found 2 good articles on Genesis 3:15 by OT scholars (no paywall):
here and here. A non-journal article describing the Catholic ...
The Idiomatic Use of הוא
As noted in this question Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve? and the answers, the pronoun in question is הוּא which is properly masculine or neuter. But as Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon states, in the Pentateuch it also takes in the feminine as an idiom. Therefore, from the use of language as found in the Mosaic Law, ...
I would interpret the word as meaning "possessive." Some pros and cons of this translation are as follows:
#1) "Possessive" has many of the qualities of "jealous" and "zealous" but is less intense (toned down). When speaking about God perhaps a less intense tone is consistent with God's majesty.
#2) I am well aware ...
I would critique the above answers methodologically in that they focus exclusively on word meaning. An alternate methodological approach would combine a focus on word meaning with a focus on the overall meaning of the verse. Some elementary observations on the verse's meaning are the following:
Adam & Eve were sinning and going through the sin-guilt ...
For an alternate view on Gen. 1 see my articles "Genesis 1 Speaks about the Creation of Prophecy, Not the Creation of the World" (B'or Hatorah, 13E (2002) 71-87), further developed in "Dreams: The True religion-science conflict," CCAR: The Reform Jewish Quarterly, (2012) 111-124)
My basic position is that Gen 1 interpreted as creation ...
As regards the ‘slightly different word[s]’ you mention, we have to remember that some of these differences were so viewed by the medieval Masoretes and not from the Hebrew text itself.
Moreover, since the two ‘different’ terms refer to the one and same object (the dual set including the two pillars called ‘Jachin’ and ‘Boaz’) is altogether nonlogical to ...
This might be a possible translation!
And they heard the VOICE of the LORD God walking( TRAVELING) in the garden in the cool (WIND) of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the LORD God amongst the trees of the garden.
The VOICE of The LORD GOD Traveling in the WIND of the day?
Note the subtlety on the phrase here which says: τῇ Ἑβραΐδι διαλέκτῳ (= "the Hebrew dialect"). Note that it does NOT say "the Hebrew language".
The fact that we are talking about either:
The Hebrew language and never used in common speech except in priestly and religious settings for reading the ancient scrolls
The Aramaic which was ...
Hebrew was spoken
Ancient Greek had a word to refer to Aramaic: Suristi. This word never appears in the New Testament. Since they could have referred to Aramaic if they wanted to, but never did, that would tend to support the view that when they say Hebrew they mean Hebrew. (drawn from a much more detailed discussion by Frank Luke on this site here)
For a ...
New International Version
We all fell to the ground, and I heard a voice saying to me in Aramaic, 'Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.'
It is not the ancient Hebrew but the dialect of their everyday language.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 1446: Ἑβραΐς
Ἑβραΐς (WH Αβραΐς, see their Introductory § ...
This is a great question!
Actually, there is a big chance that the Masoretic text we have is corrupted. The obvious problem with the text is the word לָמוֹ which as @gustavoanalytics correctly points out is an archaic form of the word לָהֶם which always means "them" and never "He". Hence the translation of the Judaica Press because of the ...
Writers both in this exchange and in Biblical commentary over the centuries have struggled with various interpretations, insertions, etc. to somehow put the "the" into Genesis 1:1. While they may succeed at the cost of not adhering to the Hebrew original as it was written, some even fail to achieve the objective of meaning "In THE beginning, ...
No, to have yd' take on a causative meaning such as "made known to" would require a causative stem like Hiphil.
The hiphil imperative 2ms of yd' is hodia, so we have
“Son of man, make known to (hodia) Jerusalem its detestable things,
But in Genesis 18.9 we have:
“For I have chosen|known (yedati) him"
That is a problem with just ...
Job is tough to translate. According to the anchor yale bible Job, it should be translated as:
Did I not silence his boasting,
By the powerful word Hayyin prepared?
With the following commentary:
KJ’s “I will not conceal his parts, nor his power, nor his comely
proportion” is accepted in essence by most moderns. Moffatt’s bold
venture, “No hunter ...
In addition to the comments already shared by Robert, I would share one additional thought. Isaiah can be broken into 2 pieces (ch. 1-39 & ch. 40-66) or into 3 pieces (ch. 1-39, ch. 40-55, ch. 56-66) or into even more pieces.
These divisions generally rely on either a presupposition about prophecy (I shared some thoughts on this topic on this site here) ...
Yes, it's justified, with the usual caveats that translators never have access to words with the identical semantic domain in the target language as in the source.
The semantic domain of hesed can be understood as loyalty, kindness, goodness, etc. It has a broad range of meanings, but is most often translated as "loyalty" due to it's ...
Job 24:22 is a rather ambiguous verse.
The actor here is not necessarily God.
Yet by his power,
Preposition-b | Noun - masculine singular construct | third person masculine singular
Strong's Hebrew 3581: A small reptile (of unknown species)
he drags away
Conjunctive waw | Verb - Qal - Conjunctive perfect - third ...
Indeed, הֵיכַ֥ל has a range of meanings. 1 Samuel 1:9 refers to meaning 2a below as God's house, not a pompus palace:
1 rather seld. (royal) palace (so almost always in Assyrian); of Ahab 1 Kings 21:1,
of king of Babylon 2 Kings 20:18 = Isaiah 38:17; 2Chronicles 36:7
2 of palace of God considered as king, = house of God or of ׳י, ...
"His-Sons" : Banav ( בָּנָ֔יו ) is masculine. If we read "His-Daughters" ( בנתיו / בנותיו ) there would be a tav after the nun to distinguish them as feminine.
Exodus / Bereishit 40:12
 "And you shall bring Aaron and his sons near the entrance of the Tent of Meeting, and you shall bathe them in water." ( וְהִקְרַבְתָּ֤ אֶת־...
While the context of the priesthood in the Torah supports translating בָּנָ֔יו (construct plural with pronominal suffix) as sons, the plural בָּנִ֖ים can be translated children. However, it is clearer when written as Gen. 5:4, בָּנִ֖ים וּבָנֽוֹת, sons and daughters. Gen. 31:28 has לְבָנַ֖י וְלִבְנֹתָ֑י, in which the context means grandsons/grandchildren ...
אֱהִי nearly always means "I shall be" (a form of the root היה). However, there is a very pertinent usage of the same word that could allow for the Septuagint's reading. In Hosea 13:10, a few verses earlier, most translators take the word אֱהִי to mean "where," leading to a translation something like this:
אֱהִי מַלְכְּךָ אֵפוֹא ...
"oz" consistently means strength/power/might throughout the old testament, as well as in other semitic texts such as Ugaritic. In no text does it mean "praise". In fact the root, עזז, is never translated as anything other than: strength, refuge, mighty, stronghold, and proper names. No child of this root is ever used as praise.