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6 votes
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Is Matthew 24:40 mistranslated in most English translations?

Let us examine the meanings of the pertinent words as nominated by the OP, according to BDAG. παραλαμβάνω (paralambanó) According to BDAG, this word has two basic meanings: to take into close ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 107k
5 votes
Accepted

1 Corinthians 15:4-7 a physical, or spiritual heavenly appearance

I think Paul answers your question. See 1 Corinthians 15:35-56. Note the question in verse 35 which is basically the OP's question. And note how that question and answer follows the paragraph where ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
3 votes

why does the ESV abandon it's word-for-word emphasis at the end of Revelation 10:6?

The Greek word χρόνος occurs 54 times in the NT. I have just personally surveyed them all and every case (with the possible exception of Rev 10:6) the word means either: indefinite time itself a ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 107k
3 votes

why does the ESV abandon it's word-for-word emphasis at the end of Revelation 10:6?

When the ESV says it is 'essentially literal'... emphasis is on "word-for-word" correspondence" - that allows it an exclusion clause for occasionally deviating from a literal ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

Is Matthew 24:40 mistranslated in most English translations?

I would say no to the majority having mistranslated the phrase. But yes to the proposition that the Geneva and YLT translations ought to be better known. In fact "received" and "refused&...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

1 Corinthians 15:4-7 a physical, or spiritual heavenly appearance

If Paul says that "he rose again" and just before that in the same sentence the same subject "he" is said to be buried, then it is excluded to interpret it in any other meaning ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
1 vote

Is Matthew 24:40 mistranslated in most English translations?

Likely they translate it that way, to be consistent with how they have to translate it in Luke 17, where the same conversation is recorded, but with additional info. Luke 17:37 is the same ...
Jamin Grey's user avatar
1 vote

Does θεοῦ in John 1:6 refer to θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος?

John 3 (ESV) 22 After this Jesus and his disciples went into the Judean countryside, and he remained there with them and was baptizing. 23 John also was baptizing at Aenon near Salim, because water ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar

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