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6

In the Old Testament, Jehovah’s self-proclaimed title of “I AM” is given special prominence in Ex 3:13-15. While we are told “I Am” was to be God’s name forever, there is no record in the Bible of it ever being used again (in Hebrew) unless we admit the grammatical connection between “I am” and the “Tetragrammaton” (which see), YHWH, commonly translated, “...


5

It is not consistent to claim that the "εγω ειμι" in John 9:9 is "clearly identification rather than existence because of the implied predicate" and yet claim that John 8:24 is an instance of existence rather than identification, because according to John 8:18-29, the Jews who had heard him understood very well that he was claiming "...


4

It looks like “ΗΝ ΔΕ ΕΓΓΥΣ ΤΟ ΠΑΣΧΑ Η ΕΟΡΤΗ ΤΩΝ ΙΟΥΔΑΙΩΝ” (based on help I received elsewhere), which I would roughly translate as, “and the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was near”. This appears to be John 6:4 (also based on surrounding context).


4

If monogenes (mono + genes) really means 'one of a kind', 'special', 'a single example' and so forth, then what has happened to genes ? Mono alone means 'one', 'sole', 'single'. The rejection of monogenes meaning 'only begotten' is too complex and too extensive to properly cover all the many convolutions of argument used in the controversy, on a site such as ...


3

What is so special about "ego eimi"? Comparing the definitive "I am" (ἐγώ εἰμι) / (Anoki, אָֽנֹכִי֙) - vs. - The Indefinite "I will be what I will be" / "Ehyeh asher Ehyeh" (אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה) : "I am" (ἐγώ εἰμι) is a definitive declaration of being's status, like "Here I am" (Hineni, ...


3

περιεδέδετο , the verb used in John 11:44, is the pluperfect, indicative, middle or passive 3rd person singular (Biblehub) of the verb περιδεω 'to bind around'. ἐντετυλιγμένον , the verb used in John 20:7, is the perfect participle, middle or passive, accusative neuter singular (Biblehub) of the verb ἐντυλίσσω 'to wrap up'. There is nothing unusual in these ...


2

The relevant portion of 1 Peter 2:8 is: ... οἳ προσκόπτουσιν τῷ λόγῳ ἀπειθοῦντες εἰς ὃ καὶ ἐτέθησαν.1 The differences arise depending on (a) what you do with the nominative masculine plural οἳ at the beginning of the clause quoted above and (b) how you understand the relationship between the verb and the participle. οἳ could be either (1) an article or (2) ...


2

The context clearly and unequivocally shows that the addressee is Jesus Christ, for "Thomas answered and said to Him" (ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ), and thus both Ὁ κύριός μου and ὁ θεός μου apply to Jesus. Thomas is simply a sober-minded theologian, driving that what he has heard and seen to a logical conclusion: Jesus, he heard, told while in ...


2

According to Barley Newman's lexicon (see UBS4 and UBS5 appendix) ἐκκλησίᾳ comes from two Greek words: ἐκ + καλέω = out + call = to call out, or the called out ones. According to BDAG, ἐκκλησίᾳ means: A regularly summoned legislative body, assembly, eg, Acts 19:39 a casual gathering of people, an assemblage, a gathering, eg, Acts 19:32, 40 people with ...


1

The operative verb in Acts 20:28 is περιποιέω (peripoieo) which occurs only three times in the NT: Luke 17:33, Acts 20:28, 1 Tim 3:13. Thayer gives the following meaning: περιποιέω, περιποιῶ: middle, present περιποιοῦμαι; 1 aorist περιεποιησάμην; (see περί, III. 2); from Herodotus down; "to make to remain over; to reserve, to leave or keep safe, lay by;...


1

Is Matthew 11:12 stating Kingdom of Heaven is associated with exciting and meaningful eventfulness? Matthew 11:12 [KJV] "And from the days of John the Baptist until now the Kingdom of Heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force." Meaning : The Children of Israel have been enslaved / taxed forcibly by nations (Egypt, Babylon, Rome) and have ...


1

If you are interested in etymology outside of the Bible, it is primarily a legal or political entity: ἔκ-κλητος, ον, (ἐκκαλέω) selected to judge or arbitrate on a point, ἐ. πόλις an umpire city, Aeschin. 1.89, IG22.111.49,al., cf. Plu.2.215c; ἐν ἐκκλήτῳ δικάσασθαι Michel1335.30; δίκην ὠφληκὼς ἐν τῇ ἐ. IG12(7).67.63 (Amorgos); χρόνος ἔ. time-limit for appeals,...


1

Here is the entry in the Liddell/Scott Greek dictionary: ἐκκλησί-α, ἡ, (ἔκκλητος) A assembly duly summoned, less general than σύλλογος, Th.2.22, Pl.Grg.456b, etc. ; applied to the Homeric Assemblies, Arist.Pol.1285a11 ; to the Samian Assembly, Hdt.3.142 ; to the Spartan, Th.1.87 ; to the meeting of the Amphictyons at Delphi, Aeschin.3.124 ; at Athens, ἐ. ...


1

It demonstrates both: A. The Deity of Christ B. The Divine Inspiration of the Holy Scriptures Part A. The Deity of Christ The Christological significance of the words ‘I AM’ is seen in the Old Testament in Exodus 3:14. Exodus Three (Septuagint) 11 And Moses said to God, Who am I, that I should go to Pharaoh king of Egypt, and that I should bring out the ...


1

Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’? It is simply based on their translation philosophy - the NIV tends and intents to be less formal (literal) and more dynamically equivalent to (translators' perceived meaning of) the Greek. So in translating the Greek and trying to understand the English they used will not be helpful. Interpreting the ...


1

OK, here is my very literal translation of 1 John 5:16 - If (1)anyone should see the brother of (2)him sinning a sin not unto death, (3)he shall ask and (4)He will give (5)him life, to (6)those sinning not unto death. There is a sin unto death; not concerning that do (7)I say that (8)he should implore. We immediately observe that there are several ...


1

Pointless Squabbling The dispute regarding the rendering "only-begotten" and "only [son]" is completely unnecessary, simply because "only-begotten" and "only son" are entirely synonymous. If the Son is the only child, he is the only-begotten, if he is the only-begotten, he is the only son; if one objects to the child ...


1

Monogenes is a word of the Greek New Testament that occurs 9 times, whose meaning is contentious because of the Arian vs Trinitarian controversy. The contention is best illustrated by its translation in the earliest version, Jerome’s Vulgate of 400 AD. 3 times it applies to a parent’s only child (Luke 7:12, 8:42, 9:38) and is translated “unicus”, unique. ...


1

Neither the word "because" or "being" is in the Greek. Further, the Greek "apeithountes" means "they disobey". Berean Study Bible and, “A stone of stumbling and a rock of offense.” Οἳ προσκόπτουσιν they disobey the word—and to this they were appointed. The complication is the phrase Οἳ προσκόπτουσιν which can be ...


1

https://blogs.ucl.ac.uk/calendars-ancient-medieval-project/2015/07/15/the-etymology-of-sabbath/ The Etymology of ‘Sabbath’ By Professor Francois de Blois The ancient Greeks did not have the concept of a week and thus there is no word for ‘week’ or for any of the days of the week in classical Greek. But in Greek writings by Jews and Christians we do have ...


1

Thomas Sappington, a professor of Intercultural studies, wrote a good scholarly essay Demon Possession where he offers his opinion on the best translation of the term daimonizomai after considering these issues related to a demon's interactions with a person: related terms: "with an unclean spirit" (en pneumati akathartō) and "having a demon&...


1

Jerome and his peers were, IMHO, were Platonists first and foremost and in the Greco-Roman interpretation of Judaism, Daemons were everywhere. But this is not without Hebrew precedent, as Paul said: [1Co 10:20 NASB] (20) [No,] but [I say] that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons and not to God; and I do not want you to become ...


1

According to Ellicott's Commentary on Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew word for heart clearly includes the concepts of both thought and affection. The Greek word for heart, however, is not necessarily so obviously includes the idea of thought or mind. To make it explicitly clear, Mark includes the word mind in Mark 12:30. Ellicott's Commentary https://biblehub....


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