It is important to note that John 10:33 was spoken by Jesus' opponents
(New International Version):
"We are not stoning you for any good work," they replied, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 2316: A deity, especially the supreme Divinity; ...
The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” (John 10:33 ESV)
ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν
The answer is straight forward. The Greek language of that period ...
As often is the case, it is both grammar and dogma/theology that has rendered 'God' - but mostly dogma. The key to understanding difficult or strange passages is to seek other verses input and the consistent message God has left through the whole text.
If we eliminate the bias that has crept into the text we will see this consistent message clearly. We can ...
It is definitely "theology/context." Before getting to John 10:33 "specifically," lets look at what happened before Jesus quoted Psalm 82:6.
So let me pose this question? What did Jesus say to cause the Jews to want to accuse Him of blasphemy resulting in His death on that cross?
John 5:16, "And for this reason the Jews were ...
This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative Predicate Nominatives. Let is take some non-threatening examples.
In each of these case we will have two nouns in the nominative case connected or correlated by a ...
It is grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as “declare Yourself to be God” as opposed to “a god”?
The Emphatic Diaglott New Testament (1942) John 10:33
Answered him the Jews saying: Concerning a good work not we stone thee, but concerning blasphemy, and that thou, a man being, makest
thyself a god.
NWT John 10:33
I agree with user25930 that incorruptibility is a better translation here. I'll show the syntactic structure this way, World English Bible Romans 2:7:
to those who by patience in well-doing
seek for glory, honor, and incorruptibility—
Is Paul using "ἀφθαρσίαν" in contrast to "ζωὴν αἰώνιον" or as an equivalence?
Along with ruminator, I am trying to comprehend if there is granted to those faithful a life that cannot be ended, even by God. Or if the nature of the life resulting is maintained by continued faithfulness. And if the former, what has God bestowed on the individual that keeps the person living eternally without any direct intercession from God needed to ...
Verb "Tenses" in Hebrew
The two verbs in Deut 34:10 are:
קָ֨ם (qam) = Qal-perfect verb; "has arisen"
יְדָע֣וֹ (yedaow) = Qal-perfect verb; "knew"
There is no such thing as future tense in Hebrew - such must be inferred from some other subtleties in the sentence.
Deut 34:10 & Prophecy
The last chapter of Deuteronomy was ...
New International Version
Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face,
Conjunctive waw | Adverb - Negative particle
Strong's Hebrew 3808: Not, no
3808. לֹא (lo or lo or loh)
The same Hebrew word is used in
Now no shrub had yet appeared on the earth and no plant ...
No. The verbs in Hebrew (see this interlinear comparison are in the "Qal-Perfect" tense, not the future tense. See this article for an explanation and examples at the bottom.
Moses was a type of Jesus. Just as "our ancestors ... were baptized into Moses," (1 Cor 10:1-2) so "we were all baptized by one spirit into one body" (1 ...
I've heard Larry Katz, ThM DTS (1965) state that the Greek context was connecting the two ποιμένας and διδασκάλους. He was my pastor for many years and a great Biblical Hermeneutics pastor and teacher he was. We were studying the gifts obviously, and he went into detail saying that this passage made in clear that in this particular list of gifts, pastor/...