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1 vote

The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

I just wrote on this subject, then got the idea to see if there was anyone else commenting on this very question, and I found you all. Here is how I see it from what I just finished writing: Going ...
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Habakkuk 1:11 true meaning

They they shall pass on like the wind, they transgress and incur guilt, for they ascribe their might to their god. (NJPS) The NJPS translation notes the meaning of the Hebrew is uncertain. Ehud Ben ...
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Habakkuk 1:11 true meaning

The KJV is most unfortunate and mangles the translation as Ellicott observes: (11) Then shall his mind change. . . .—Better, Then he sweeps by like a wind and passes. But he is guilty, making this ...
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Habakkuk 1:11 true meaning

This is referring to a godless people who put their faith in idols who ride rough shod over other nations. This people are identified in verse 6 as the Babylonians or Chaldeans. The first person will ...
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2 votes

How to interpret ἐμαρτύρουν αὐτῷ in Luke 4 22?

The OP's question reduces to the the specific structure of the clause: πάντες ἐμαρτύρουν αὐτῷ = all were bearing witness/testifying to/for/about him. The verb ἐμαρτύρουν (were bearing witness/...
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In Song of Solomon 5:16 what is the significance of the plural suffix?

The book of Solomon is actually showing the love relationship between Christ and the Church. So that Portions says that My friend is altogether lovely/desirable (paraphrased). Since that part is ...
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2 votes

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

This answer was copied and pasted from http://www.biblebookprofiler.com/the-forgery-of-john-10-33.html The Felony Forgery of John 10:33 Article Outline: Introduction This trinitarian Felony Forgery ...
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1 vote

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'?

Unfortunately, neither is the answer to your Q. A lot of issues on this passage. I have tried to limit so it not to overwhelming as so much can be written about this. Quite a bit is covered in this -...
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1 vote

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'?

The Lord just makes a clear and unmistakable allusion to Septuagint 89 (90):2 "πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη γενηθῆναι καὶ πλασθῆναι τὴν γῆν καὶ τὴν οἰκουμένην, καὶ ἀπὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος καὶ ἕως τοῦ αἰῶνος σὺ εἶ" (&...
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1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?

The object is more important than the plural subject It's not about who gives the defense, but about whom the defense is given to You're asking about the phrase: [you] (plural) ready to give a ...
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3 votes

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'?

The debate is simple - it resolves to a matter of the intention of the statement: "I am he" is a statement of identification "I am" is a statement of existence. For "...
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