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1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

I recommend that the English.SE will be a better place to receive grammatical explanations, however, I can try and guess as to how the sentence is not incomplete as you think. The sentence is not an ...
Michael16's user avatar
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1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

Here are the remarks of Bruce Metzger in his "Textual Commentary of the GNT" on the variation of Ὃς vs θεὸς, which in the original Uncial MSS was Ὃς with a line over it, ie, a Nomina Sacra. ...
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1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

The fact remains for all that, that the original reading of A is attested so amply, that no sincere lover of Truth can ever hereafter pretend to doubt it... it is too late by 150 years to contend on ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

Barnes commentary Sheds the light that I agree with The question which has excited so much controversy is, whether the original Greek word was Θεὸς Theos, “God,” or whether it was ὅς hos, “who,” or ...
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1 Cor 15:24-28 Are translators translating the subjunctive? If not are we missing anything by leaving it untranslated?

Greek often uses the subjunctive in places where English would not. Several such examples can be seen in 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 of how the subjunctive is used after a temporal adverb (hotan, meaning ...
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Isaiah 33:2 & Isaiah 33:6 deeper understanding as to why there is an strange choice when it comes to the possessive adjective & pronouns

The pulpit commentary offers this about Isa 33:2 Verse 2. - O Lord, etc. The mingling of prayer with prophecy is very unusual, and indicative of highly excited feeling. Isaiah realizes fully the ...
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To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I don't know of a single instance in Scripture where the Greek word 'apo' is translated as 'before'. It is always translated as 'from'. Not even the ESV translates the Greek word 'apo' as 'before' in ...
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The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

All this confusion has been generated by the New King James translation putting Capitol He in place of just he as the original King James did. This has caused great confusion so that people think He ...
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In Isaiah 6:2 whose face and feet are the Seraphim covering with their wings?

I've been meditating on this text for the last year. My proposal is that the cherubim's face is a representation of it's beauty/glory and it's legs are representation of its power and might. Knowing ...
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He saved, shall be saved, or saves us. How should (G4982) be translated in Titus 3:5?

Yes, it is acceptable in English to understand that particular sentence as "he saves us", as the Greek aorist tense form for the verb allows this, and also the context which describes the ...
Michael16's user avatar
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