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How should Revelation 11:15 be translated (so the implied pronoun and expressed referent agree)?

An important Linguistic rule is that an author makes choices when constructing a text. That means something goes on the page and other (potentially useful) choices do not go on the page. So, I think,...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
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Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?

As to @Steveowens assumption that Jesus is not the name of the Father: Isaiah 9:6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name ...
Calvin Holtrop's user avatar
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Might Matthew 7:7 have had parallel grammar in Aramaic?

Sure, it could have if Jesus had wished to say it that way. For example, Greek δεῖξον (δείκνυμι) in Mark 1:44 is translated in the Peshitta as חוא, to show, reveal. It's a transitive verb, and I don't ...
ldghdlghdghdsflsgh's user avatar
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Might Matthew 7:7 have had parallel grammar in Aramaic?

The statement is part of the Sermon on the Mount which was given to a large crowd in Galilee and that strongly suggests Jesus spoke in Greek. Matthew 7:7 (ESV) Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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Might Matthew 7:7 have had parallel grammar in Aramaic?

You will notice that εὑρήσετε (heurēsete) is 2nd Person Plural. Second Person Point of View is when the narrator refers to the reader as "you". We know that the subject hasn't changed so ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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3 votes

2 Thes. 2.6-9; "until among the midst be fufilled"; and the coming in v9 is referring Christ; not the son of perdition. Any issues with my rendering?

There are essentially three aspects to this question about the man of lawlessness in 2 Thess 2: Translation of κατά in 2 Thess 2:9 The translation of κατά depends upon whether it is used in relation ...
Dottard's user avatar
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" Then shall the wicked be revealed" 2Thes.2 .8; could the "wicked" (one ) possibly be speaking of the many?

2 Thess 2 is often called Paul's apocalypse because it describes the coming of the "Man of Lawlessness" in the following terms: V3: Let no one deceive you in any way, for it will not come ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Grammar of Isaiah 44:6

Here are the choices (using the ESV): Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and its [the people of Israel’s] Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote

Galatians 5:4 “fallen from grace/failed to grasp grace” Greek roots

As a Wesleyan/Armenian pastor I would correct the idea that people lose their salvation by sinning. Sin is a symptom of a greater heart issue. Human weakness and poor judgement may appear as sin to ...
Rev Terry Chapman's user avatar
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What is Jesus sending the multitude away from?

Send Them Away The answer to this Question is simply found in the narrative (the verses themselves). And when the day was now far spent, His disciples came unto Him, and said, "This is a desert ...
ray grant's user avatar
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Genesis 22: Jehovah Jireh

Here's the Jewish Publication Society (1985) translation of Genesis 22:8: And Abraham said, “God will see to the sheep for His burnt offering, my son.” And the two of them walked on together. A ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1? If not, what grammar denies it?

The original question posed by "Thomas Pearne" (AKA "Gregory Blunt") was based on the (possibly deliberate) misapprehension that the Greek article is always anaphoric. It is true ...
Dottard's user avatar
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