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Why does Mark identify the lake in Galilee as the "Sea of Galilee"?

The specific lake takes its older name ("Gennesaret" or "Kineret," "Chinnereth" etc.) from the small plain which lies on its western side. In Greek and Roman times this ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
7 votes

1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

Here are the remarks of Bruce Metzger in his "Textual Commentary of the GNT" on the variation of Ὃς vs θεὸς, which in the original Uncial MSS was Ὃς with a line over it, ie, a Nomina Sacra. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes

Why do some Bible translations differ on how Proverbs 16:31 is translated?

You will notice here that the word "if" is not explicitly present in the Hebrew. However, the meaning of the verse implies a condition. The verse describes the condition under which the ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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6 votes

Why does Mark identify the lake in Galilee as the "Sea of Galilee"?

The operative words used here are as follows: λίμνη (limné) = lake/sea. It is used of the lake /sea of Gennesaret/Galilee in Luke 5:1, 2, 8:22, 23, 33. In the NT it is only used by Luke and by John ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

Why does Mark identify the lake in Galilee as the "Sea of Galilee"?

Because language is generally not consistent with these things Most bodies of water were named before modern cartography actually defined the difference between one thing and another... especially ...
Nosajimiki's user avatar
6 votes

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

The OP is correct that the KJV presents Jesus as "owing" the title but the RSV presents him speaking in the third person. In terms of theological significance the KJV obviously presumes that ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes

The Lord is your Makers and your Husbands? Isaiah 54:5

Here is my attempt at rendering Isa 54:5 very literally: for, [the] one marrying you is [the] one fashioning you - YHWH of Hosts [is] His name; and He who is redeeming you [is] the Holy One of Israel,...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

There is a large set of textual variations in the Greek MSS at Matt 16:13; the main ones surround the inclusion of an almost ungrammatical accusative "me" into Jesus' question, as per the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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Agreement of subject and verb in Luke 11:41

It is common in Koine Greek for a neuter [gender] plural [number] subject to have a verb in the singular number, as noted by multitudes of Greek grammars: Blass, p. 78, § 31.3: Blass & Debrunner, ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
4 votes

2 Thes. 2.6-9; "until among the midst be fufilled"; and the coming in v9 is referring Christ; not the son of perdition. Any issues with my rendering?

There are essentially three aspects to this question about the man of lawlessness in 2 Thess 2: Translation of κατά in 2 Thess 2:9 The translation of κατά depends upon whether it is used in relation ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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What is the significance of the term die, die ( מוֹת מוֹת, mûṯ mûṯ) at Genesis 2:17? Die repeated twice

As this article explains, repetitions such as this serve as modifiers providing emphasis. The English equivalent would be "very," "every" or, in this case, "surely." ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes
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Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

“Does the text indeed state a grammatical equivalence?” Based on the grammatical construction of Jn 6:27, “the Father” and “the God” are not nouns in apposition. While both “the God'' and “the Father” ...
Nhi's user avatar
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3 votes
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What is the significance of the omission of the article in Son of Man in John?

"Son of Man" in John 5:27 is an anarthrous (meaning it has no article) predicate nominative that precedes the verb, a form that Daniel Wallace refers to as “Colwell’s construction.” The ...
Nhi's user avatar
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3 votes

Eph.1:6 "in the beloved", or "to love"?

Your translation completely ignores the preposition ἐν. The Greek preposition ἐν is never, to my knowledge, used in a purpose statement. “To love” (i.e., “in order to love” or “for the purpose of ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
3 votes

Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

As you well-mentioned, Gregory, the verb in “πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται” (Ῥωμαίους 10·13 THGNT-T) is aorist. However, in the subjunctive mood it is tied to the indefinite ...
Epimanes's user avatar
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3 votes

Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

According to Ananias, baptism includes calling on the name of the Lord. "And now what are you waiting for? Get up, be baptized, and wash your sins away, calling on his name." Acts 22:16
James Ajiduah's user avatar
3 votes

Does the use of the past tense in the verse imply that the blind man literally saw Jesus before he was healed?

There are two matters in this question: See vs See Koine Greek has two main verbs for "seeing". These are almost identical in meaning: ὁράω (horaó) (with οἶδα serving as the aorist form ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes
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What is the meaning of "wə-han" in Genesis 24:16

The word uses a conjunctive waw which joins two parts of speech, such as two nouns, an article and a noun, etc. A literal rendering of the word וְהַֽנַּעֲרָ֗ would simply be "the girl" or &...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
3 votes
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Is the singular word for 'apostle' only used with a definite article in Heb.3:1?

The important grammatical fact here is English is not Greek; further, the Greek article does not function the same way as the English article. For example, here are just a very few of the many rules ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Why is "was" inserted into English translations of Genesis 2:9?

It is clear from the literal Hebrew translation that there are three different descriptions of trees. ... And made spring Jehovah God from the ground every tree pleasant and good for food ... ... ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

What is the better rendering of colossians 2:14?

Some attempt to make this a matter of the blotting out of the sins that have been committed. But the text is quite clear if it is translated literally. εξαλειψας το καθ ημων χειρογραφον τοις δογμασιν ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes
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The Lord is your Makers and your Husbands? Isaiah 54:5

כִּי בֹעֲלַיִךְ עֹשַׂיִךְ יְהֹוָה צְבָאוֹת שְׁמוֹ וְגֹאֲלֵךְ קְדוֹשׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל אֱלֹהֵי כׇל־הָאָרֶץ יִקָּרֵא׃ The words בּוֹעֲלַיִךְ ,עשַׁׂיִךְ are indeed in the plural and are referring to a single ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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3 votes

“Do you love Me more than these?”

Something interesting is that in every single place in this gospel Peter is referred to as “Simon Peter”, except for two places. Here, the phrase “Simon, [the] son of John” is used (and it’s used ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
2 votes

What does "purpose/prothesin" mean in Romans 8:28?

According to BDAG, the Greek noun πρόθεσις (prothesis) has two meanings: setting forth of something in public, setting forth, putting out, presentation, eg, Matt 12:4, Mark 2:26, Luke 6:4 = "...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes
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Codex Sinaiticus strange spelling for some verb endings

The papyri and all of the great uncials have these sorts of patterns. And they switch between them with equal ease (i.e. the example on the right switches with the example on the left, & vice ...
Epimanes's user avatar
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2 votes

Eph.1:6 "in the beloved", or "to love"?

The operative word in Eph 1:6 is Ἠγαπημένῳ which is a perfect participle (ie, verbal noun) middle or passive voice - dative masculine singular. Translating Ἠγαπημένῳ is "to love" suggests it ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Romans 10:13 - How long does it take to get saved when someone calls on the name of the Lord? (aorist, middle, subjunctive)

How long does it take to be saved? As long as it takes to decide to call upon the name of the Lord! With some people that takes almost a lifetime; with other, a few minutes. Rom 10:13 also appears ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

1 Timothy 3:16 – How can the relative pronoun in Greek - Ὃς - which means “who, which, that” etc., be translated as “He”?

Barnes commentary Sheds the light that I agree with The question which has excited so much controversy is, whether the original Greek word was Θεὸς Theos, “God,” or whether it was ὅς hos, “who,” or ...
Faith Mendel's user avatar
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