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6 votes

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

The OP is correct that the KJV presents Jesus as "owing" the title but the RSV presents him speaking in the third person. In terms of theological significance the KJV obviously presumes that ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

There is a large set of textual variations in the Greek MSS at Matt 16:13; the main ones surround the inclusion of an almost ungrammatical accusative "me" into Jesus' question, as per the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

The Lord is your Makers and your Husbands? Isaiah 54:5

Here is my attempt at rendering Isa 54:5 very literally: for, [the] one marrying you is [the] one fashioning you - YHWH of Hosts [is] His name; and He who is redeeming you [is] the Holy One of Israel,...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

“Do you love Me more than these?”

Something interesting is that in every single place in this gospel Peter is referred to as “Simon Peter”, except for two places. Here, the phrase “Simon, [the] son of John” is used (and it’s used ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

The Lord is your Makers and your Husbands? Isaiah 54:5

כִּי בֹעֲלַיִךְ עֹשַׂיִךְ יְהֹוָה צְבָאוֹת שְׁמוֹ וְגֹאֲלֵךְ קְדוֹשׁ יִשְׂרָאֵל אֱלֹהֵי כׇל־הָאָרֶץ יִקָּרֵא׃ The words בּוֹעֲלַיִךְ ,עשַׁׂיִךְ are indeed in the plural and are referring to a single ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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2 votes

The Lord is your Makers and your Husbands? Isaiah 54:5

This occurs in Hebrew Grammar and relates to God's attributes. See the following quotes. On the other hand, we must regard as doubtful a number of participles in the plural, which, being used as ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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2 votes

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

Conjugation is the change that takes place in a verb to express tense, mood, person and so on. In English, verbs change as they are used, most notably with different people (you, I, we) and different ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
2 votes

“Do you love Me more than these?”

I thought this very good question had already been asked in this group, but a search could not find it. There is no decisive argument for the choice you list. Often in the Gospel of John when Jesus ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

In John 1:12, what is the grammatical significance of the tense of the four verbs in understanding the relationship between faith and salvation?

The various verbs with their grammatical forms in John 1:12 are as follows: ἔλαβον = "received" Aorist Indicative Active = already accomplished action ἔδωκεν = "gave" Aorist ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote
Accepted

Is there theological significance regarding the way different translations render Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:13?

As noted in @MikeSangrey’s comment, the KJV's rendering is likely a function of the Textus Receptus, the text of Mt 16:13 of which has the personal pronoun με (Strong’s G3165 meaning me:—I, me, my). ...
Nhi's user avatar
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1 vote

“Do you love Me more than these?”

Westcott's commentary (p302) takes the first choice (without even considering the second) as a pointed reference to Peters' bold claim ("I will lay down my life") in ch13 v37.
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote

“Do you love Me more than these?”

John 21:7 ESV "That disciple whom Jesus loved therefore said to Peter, 'It is the Lord!' When Simon Peter heard that it was the Lord, he put on his outer garment, for he was stripped for work, ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote

“Do you love Me more than these?”

As is well-understood, Jesus asked Simon Peter three times if he Loved Jesus, because, Peter had denied Jesus three times. Now, the reason Peter denied Jesus was embarrassingly simple (for him) - ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k
1 vote

“Do you love Me more than these?”

It seems to me that if he was referring to the other disciples he would be inconsistant in his continued efforts to teach them humility and that none was better than another. Did Peter truly love ...
ACME's user avatar
  • 352
1 vote

Grammar of Ephesians 3:14-19 - triple "hina" clauses in Greek?

I think the short answer is, ‘no’. The syntax won’t help you. But, all is not hopeless. In fact, your excellently worded question provides solid hints to a better answer than simply ‘no’. I suggest ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar

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