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19 votes
Accepted

Why does Mark identify the lake in Galilee as the "Sea of Galilee"?

The specific lake takes its older name ("Gennesaret" or "Kineret," "Chinnereth" etc.) from the small plain which lies on its western side. In Greek and Roman times this ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
14 votes
Accepted

Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?

Wallace offers a very good explanation of the use of the term in the original language. It may help to understand exactly what is meant by the term εἰς τὸ ὄνομα - into the name of. I am not going ...
oldhermit's user avatar
  • 3,498
10 votes

Why did angels speak a sentence of eleven words without a verb?

The short answer is because they chose to. This "quip" answer reveals the challenge of answering most "why" questions, as "why" normally requires inference of motive, rather than actually interpreting ...
ScottS's user avatar
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10 votes

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative ...
Dottard's user avatar
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10 votes
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דָג and דָגה in Jonah 1:17 – 2:1

Dagah and dag (דג, דגה) have different meanings and are not interchangeable. They are defined as distinct words in all Hebrew dictionaries. "Dag/dagim" is a noun of masculine gender from the ...
Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim al Yahud's user avatar
9 votes

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated "Jesus" but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

They were the same in the ancient languages and even in modern languages until quite recently. Comparing the uses in Acts 7:45, Hebrews 4:8, and Matthew 10:5: In the original Greek they're the same: ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
  • 1,609
9 votes
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Why is διὰ παντὸς translated as "continually" in Hebrews 13:15?

The expression διὰ παντός means always, continually, constantly (BDAG, "διὰ", A.2.a) This is a formulaic adverbial phrase, but it isn't really so hard to arrive at from the literal meaning of the ...
Susan's user avatar
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9 votes

Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?

ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
9 votes

Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?

Did you pay attention to the masora? 3:12 has הִ֛וא, pronounced he meaning she, while 3:15 and 3:20 have ה֚וּא, pronounced hu meaning he. See the following: https://biblehub.com/hebrew/1931.htm What ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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9 votes

Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience. It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes
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In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?

The most common explanation for this text and its perplexing syntax -- without recourse to emendation -- is that רֹבֵץ is said to be a "nominalized participle", and thus not subject to the gender ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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8 votes

Help parsing (וַיִּשְׁבֹּת֙) in Genesis 2:2

TL;DR: That is a dagesh lene, and the vowels match those of the qal and not the pi'el in any case. The dagesh forte that you're using for your diagnostic must follow a vowel other than sheva. For ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
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8 votes
Accepted

Shouldn’t it read her tent? Genesis 9:21

The Masoretic vowelization here isn't changing the meaning of the consonantal text. The letter ה as a suffix is used throughout the Bible, though less often than ו, to represent the /o/ that marks ...
b a's user avatar
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8 votes
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Faulty "covenant" or "ministry" in Hebrews 8:7?

The Broader Context Answers "Covenant" Grammatically, the singular feminine ἡ πρώτη ἐκείνη ("that first") could match to either the singular feminine λειτουργία ("ministry) or ...
ScottS's user avatar
  • 20.2k
8 votes

Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

I do not like this proposed rule for several reasons, apart from the fact that it is confusing and misleading and never required. If the rule is correct (which I doubt) then John 20:28 is a clear ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k
7 votes
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THE burning bush: why the definite article?

Although the Hebrew article is frequently used in a manner that is similar to the English definite article, there are certain contexts where this parallel breaks down. One such case when the Hebrew ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.5k
7 votes

Why is "Mitzrayim" translated "Egypt"?

Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"? Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:
Dɑvïd's user avatar
  • 24.8k
7 votes
Accepted

Is James 2:14 two questions or one?

Yes, it is necessarily a question rather than a statement. The relevant part of the text (NA-28): μὴ δύναται ἡ πίστις σῶσαι αὐτόν Note the negative particle μὴ followed by an indicative verb (...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.5k
7 votes

John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)

I do not believe this is an accurate assessment. If I understand the proposition correctly, OP is suggesting that the accusative case of θεόν indicates identity with a definite individual rather than ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.5k
7 votes

Jehovah in the New Testament

Background Luke 3:4 is one of the 237 instances where the New World Translation (NWT) uses Jehovah: just as it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet: “A voice of one crying out ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
7 votes

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

πριν αβρααμ γενεσθαι εγω ειμι [TR] John 8:58 [Text undisputed] Baxter's Analytical Greek Lexicon says of the word γενεσθαι, genesthai, that it is the aorist 2, infinitive and is an inflection of ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.8k
7 votes

Eph 5:5 and Sharps' Rule

I am seeking a strictly grammatical answer. Sharp's rule discriminates between proper and common nouns; as such, given Judaism's belief in only one God, and Christianity's belief in only one Christ, ...
7 votes

Is the grammatical tense for Isaiah 9:6 irrelevant when it comes to debating whether Isaiah 9:6 refers to Jesus Christ, The Messiah?

First, Hebrew verbs do not have tense - there is no past, present and future tense in Hebrew. We have various forms of the Hebrew verbs such as Qal, Niphal, Pual, perfect, etc, for which English has ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k

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