Hot answers tagged

13 votes

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making ...
user avatar
  • 1,579
12 votes
Accepted

Does the definite article 'the', occur in front of the name of God in the Hebrew language?

The Tetragram in Hebrew is a proper name, and names do not have articles in Hebrew any more than they do in English. The article "the" arises in OP's KJV example because of the convention (beginning ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
11 votes
Accepted

Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?

Wallace offers a very good explanation of the use of the term in the original language. It may help to understand exactly what is meant by the term εἰς τὸ ὄνομα - into the name of. I am not going ...
user avatar
  • 2,757
10 votes

In Romans 8:28 do "all things work together" or does "God work all things together" for the good?

I have been looking at this same verse the past few days. There are three important questions in my opinion for understanding this verse: (1) what is the subject of συνεργεῖ, (2) what is the syntax of ...
user avatar
  • 121
10 votes

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

The heart of the problem is that the earliest manuscripts-the uncials and papyri don't have punctuation. There has got to be a comma and or period in there, but where? Murray Harris in his study of ...
user avatar
10 votes
Accepted

Ephesians 3:4 "πρὸς ὃ"

The verse: πρὸς ὃ δύνασθε ἀναγινώσκοντες νοῆσαι τὴν σύνεσίν μου ἐν τῷ μυστηρίῳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ. When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ.(ESV) [With reference] ...
user avatar
  • 25.7k
10 votes

Why did angels speak a sentence of eleven words without a verb?

The short answer is because they chose to. This "quip" answer reveals the challenge of answering most "why" questions, as "why" normally requires inference of motive, rather than actually interpreting ...
user avatar
  • 19.6k
10 votes

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative ...
user avatar
  • 69.9k
9 votes
Accepted

"Black but beautiful" or "Black and beautiful" in Song of Songs?

The context (see verse 6) justifies translating the v' as "but." Furthermore, it clearly demonstrates that she is not actually black but simply very darkly tanned. Do not stare at me because I am ...
user avatar
9 votes
Accepted

Frequency of each binyan (grammatical conjugation) in the OT?

From: B. Waltke and M. O'Connor, An Introduction to Biblical Hebrew Syntax (Eisenbrauns, 1990), § 21.2.3e, p. 361: +-------------+------+------------+------+ | Occurrences ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
9 votes
Accepted

What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

It is true that the "anarthrous" usage of "Jesus" (Ἰησοῦς) in Mark 1:9 is unusual. Of 82 occurrences of the name in Mark, only eight of them lack the article (1:1, 9, 24; 5:7; 10:...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
9 votes
Accepted

Why is διὰ παντὸς translated as "continually" in Hebrews 13:15?

The expression διὰ παντός means always, continually, constantly (BDAG, "διὰ", A.2.a) This is a formulaic adverbial phrase, but it isn't really so hard to arrive at from the literal meaning of the ...
user avatar
  • 25.7k
9 votes

Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience. It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
user avatar
8 votes

What is the meaning of the paseq in Genesis 1.5?

Kennedy summarizes his view on p. 5, and OP's sense that the paseq is a rough equivalent to how we use [sic] strikes me as about right. Kennedy's view, however, doesn't seem like a plausible -- or at ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
8 votes

In Acts 13:48, had those who believed been "appointed" or "readied and prepared"?

The differences between and the new believers were prepared for eternal life (OP) and and all who were appointed for eternal life believed (NIV) are the flip-flopping of the finite verb ...
user avatar
  • 25.7k
8 votes
Accepted

In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?

The most common explanation for this text and its perplexing syntax -- without recourse to emendation -- is that רֹבֵץ is said to be a "nominalized participle", and thus not subject to the gender ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
8 votes

Help parsing (וַיִּשְׁבֹּת֙) in Genesis 2:2

TL;DR: That is a dagesh lene, and the vowels match those of the qal and not the pi'el in any case. The dagesh forte that you're using for your diagnostic must follow a vowel other than sheva. For ...
user avatar
  • 1,478
8 votes

Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?

ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the ...
user avatar
8 votes
Accepted

Faulty "covenant" or "ministry" in Hebrews 8:7?

The Broader Context Answers "Covenant" Grammatically, the singular feminine ἡ πρώτη ἐκείνη ("that first") could match to either the singular feminine λειτουργία ("ministry) or ...
user avatar
  • 19.6k
8 votes

Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

I do not like this proposed rule for several reasons, apart from the fact that it is confusing and misleading and never required. If the rule is correct (which I doubt) then John 20:28 is a clear ...
user avatar
  • 69.9k
8 votes

Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?

Did you pay attention to the masora? 3:12 has הִ֛וא, pronounced he meaning she, while 3:15 and 3:20 have ה֚וּא, pronounced hu meaning he. See the following: https://biblehub.com/hebrew/1931.htm What ...
user avatar
  • 16.8k
7 votes
Accepted

What is the (grammatical) subject of Romans 10:10?

May Viably Be Construed as Either Middle or Passive Voice Your observation about the grammar of the verb compared to the English translations is very astute. Unfortunately, I do not think grammar ...
user avatar
  • 19.6k
7 votes
Accepted

Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a "partitive" or "inclusive" sense?

Partitive or Switched Subject is Nearly Certain as Correct K. Grayston makes an argument for the inclusive view,1 but is challenged by both K. L. McKay's brief reply,2 and P.W. van der Horst's more ...
user avatar
  • 19.6k

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible