15
votes
Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?
I submit that there can be no fuller answer to this question than that given by Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones some 70 years ago in a lecture on this verse.1 He summarizes the factors to consider in making ...
- 1,635
12
votes
Accepted
Does the definite article 'the', occur in front of the name of God in the Hebrew language?
The Tetragram in Hebrew is a proper name, and names do not have articles in Hebrew any more than they do in English.
The article "the" arises in OP's KJV example because of the convention (beginning ...
- 24.7k
11
votes
Accepted
Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?
Wallace offers a very good explanation of the use of the term in the original language. It may help to understand exactly what is meant by the term
εἰς τὸ ὄνομα - into the name of.
I am not going ...
- 3,318
10
votes
Why did angels speak a sentence of eleven words without a verb?
The short answer is because they chose to. This "quip" answer reveals the challenge of answering most "why" questions, as "why" normally requires inference of motive, rather than actually interpreting ...
- 20k
10
votes
Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?
This is definitely a grammatical problem and is subtle. The matter at hand in John 10:33 is what Daniel B Wallace in "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics" (GGBB) calls "Qualitative ...
- 95.3k
10
votes
Accepted
דָג and דָגה in Jonah 1:17 – 2:1
Dagah and dag (דג, דגה) have different meanings and are not interchangeable. They are defined as distinct words in all Hebrew dictionaries.
"Dag/dagim" is a noun of masculine gender from the ...
9
votes
If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated "Jesus" but his name in hebrew was Joshua?
They were the same in the ancient languages and even in modern languages until quite recently. Comparing the uses in Acts 7:45, Hebrews 4:8, and Matthew 10:5:
In the original Greek they're the same: ...
- 1,585
9
votes
Accepted
What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?
It is true that the "anarthrous" usage of "Jesus" (Ἰησοῦς) in Mark 1:9 is unusual. Of 82 occurrences of the name in Mark, only eight of them lack the article (1:1, 9, 24; 5:7; 10:...
- 24.7k
9
votes
Accepted
Why is διὰ παντὸς translated as "continually" in Hebrews 13:15?
The expression διὰ παντός means
always, continually, constantly (BDAG, "διὰ", A.2.a)
This is a formulaic adverbial phrase, but it isn't really so hard to arrive at from the literal meaning of the ...
- 26.2k
9
votes
Why the definite article in 'Abba, Father'?
ἀββα is the Greek transliteration of the Aramaic אַבָּא. In both Hebrew and Aramaic, the vocative is often indicated by definitizing a noun.1 Hence, we can interpret אַבָּא into English as the ...
- 11.4k
9
votes
Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?
Did you pay attention to the masora? 3:12 has הִ֛וא, pronounced he meaning she, while 3:15 and 3:20 have ה֚וּא, pronounced hu meaning he.
See the following:
https://biblehub.com/hebrew/1931.htm
What ...
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9
votes
Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?
Paul is using a line from the Thais of the Greek poet Menander1, whose work would have been well-known to Paul's Corinthian audience.
It is not uncommon for preachers in English to quote Shakespeare, ...
- 16k
8
votes
Accepted
In Gen. 4:7, why is the participle רֹבֵץ declined in the masculine gender?
The most common explanation for this text and its perplexing syntax -- without recourse to emendation -- is that רֹבֵץ is said to be a "nominalized participle", and thus not subject to the gender ...
- 24.7k
8
votes
Help parsing (וַיִּשְׁבֹּת֙) in Genesis 2:2
TL;DR: That is a dagesh lene, and the vowels match those of the qal and not the pi'el in any case. The dagesh forte that you're using for your diagnostic must follow a vowel other than sheva.
For ...
- 1,585
8
votes
Accepted
Faulty "covenant" or "ministry" in Hebrews 8:7?
The Broader Context Answers "Covenant"
Grammatically, the singular feminine ἡ πρώτη ἐκείνη ("that first") could match to either the singular feminine λειτουργία ("ministry) or ...
- 20k
8
votes
Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?
I do not like this proposed rule for several reasons, apart from the fact that it is confusing and misleading and never required. If the rule is correct (which I doubt) then John 20:28 is a clear ...
- 95.3k
7
votes
Accepted
Genesis 2:10 - Why are the verbs and the participle translated into English past tense?
It is hard to know how else to translate this idiomatically in English otherwise. Even sticking with the MT, the verb sequence makes it clear that 2:10-14 is an "offline" digression describing the one-...
- 24.7k
7
votes
Accepted
In Matthew 5:28, which variant, αὐτὴν or αὐτῆς, is the object of τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι?
It's probably αὐτὴν, as the modern critical editions have it.
The witnesses
The genitive pronoun αυτης is found (among consistently cited witnesses) only in the 4th-6th Century "correction" of ...
- 26.2k
7
votes
Accepted
What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?
The considerations here are much the same as those I discussed in a previous answer. I have attempted to develop those ideas and tailor it to the passage in question.
[I]s it incorrect to read ...
- 26.2k
7
votes
Accepted
THE burning bush: why the definite article?
Although the Hebrew article is frequently used in a manner that is similar to the English definite article, there are certain contexts where this parallel breaks down. One such case when the Hebrew ...
- 26.2k
7
votes
Why is "Mitzrayim" translated "Egypt"?
Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"?
Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:
- 24.7k
7
votes
John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)
I do not believe this is an accurate assessment. If I understand the proposition correctly, OP is suggesting that the accusative case of θεόν indicates identity with a definite individual rather than ...
- 26.2k
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