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If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
8 votes

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

This is a great question. It's great because it's quasi-paradoxical for more than just one or two so-called 'high Christology' theologies. This is because the Gospel of John is so clearly intended to ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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6 votes

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

I believe it's important to understand why people assume as a premise that Jesus is God, and whether this had always been the held belief. Was the belief that Jesus is God maintained in the oldest ...
carsonfel's user avatar
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5 votes

Does the grammatical context of 1 Chronicles 29:10 allow for it to be declaring that God is our Father?

So we have ambiguity between two possible compositions in 1 Chron. 29:10: [God of [Israel our father]] or [[God of Israel] our father] Grammatically and semantically both are plausible. Are both ...
Luke Sawczak's user avatar
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4 votes

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

Actually, the word "He" does not exist in the Greek text at all. Here is my literal translation of the NA28/UBS5 Greek text of Mark 12:27 - οὐκ ἔστιν Θεὸς νεκρῶν ἀλλὰ ζώντων. πολὺ πλανᾶσθε. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

What is the manner in which the Father and the Son reveal themselves to Christians, as outlined in John 14:21-23?

I appreciate what inspired the OPs question! A crucial point of how God reveals himself to a seeker (based on Hosea's book) is the need for "repentance and seeking God to help turn from ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Isaiah 43:11 & 43:25 "I, even I" is a Duet in literature involving Father & Son persons of the Trinity/Triune God speaking in interleaving manner

There is some evidence that this construction is, in Hebrew, indicative of a duet. The same construction is used in Deborah's song, which is a duet involving both Deborah and Barak. Then sang Deborah ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

The "My God" refers to Jesus' relation to God in His humanity. It was in His manhood as well as His deity that He restored the loss which came through Adam's sin. "Your God" at ...
Mr. Bond's user avatar
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3 votes

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

In the bible, the word God (elohim in Hebrew or theos in Greek) is ascribed to more than one person. Some examples: The Father - John 17:3, John 20:17 Jesus - John 20:28 Moses - Exodus 4.16, Exodus 7....
matt2048's user avatar
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3 votes

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

What did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I” at John 14:28? Jesus meant ,that his Father's is superior to him in knowledge , position and authority, During his earthly ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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2 votes

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I Jesus said this not because He denies being Deity. It's also explict in the Gospel of John that He was divine ("God" > Θεός John 1:1,18). The ...
R. Brown's user avatar
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2 votes

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

1) Equality Paul tells us : ... who, in form of God subsisting, thought it not robbery to be equal God (Philipians 2:6 literal translation of Stephens 1550 text from EGNT interlinear.) With regard ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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2 votes

Who is "your God" in John 8:54?

John is clear throughout his writings as to whom the God of the Jews is. God the Father has never been seen or even heard. No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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2 votes

Who is "your God" in John 8:54?

He is the same God who said "I am the Lord... and I will take you for my people, and I will be YOUR God, and you will know that I am the Lord YOUR God" (Exodus ch6 vv6-7). A promise ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes
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Why does Jesus refer to his father as a man?

The operative word in John 8:17 is ἄνθρωπος (anthropos) which can mean any "person", not necessarily male. (See BDAG). It can also mean "mankind" or any individual of any kind. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

... how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? - Mark 12:26 God here is theos which is a singular, generalized term indicating ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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2 votes
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What is the manner in which the Father and the Son reveal themselves to Christians, as outlined in John 14:21-23?

Part I The Scripture states emphatically that there is only ”one Spirit” (Eph 4:4; 2:18). This is the Holy Spirit. It is the ”same Spirit” (1 Cor 12:4). There is no “another Spirit” (2 Cor 11:4). The ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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1 vote

Isaiah 43:11 & 43:25 "I, even I" is a Duet in literature involving Father & Son persons of the Trinity/Triune God speaking in interleaving manner

The "I, even I" theme in Isa 43:11 & 25 is simply Hebrew idiom which is explained in the next phrase. Let us observe the following: In the common translations of "I even I", ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Why does Jesus refer to his father as a man?

Nowhere does Jesus say that His Father is a man! Quoting from the Law and adding “men” by Jesus doesn’t mean that He said His Father was a man. On the contrary! Explanation: First Jesus said even if ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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1 vote

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

In the original account in Exodus, the angel of the Lord appeared unto Moses in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush. Then the LORD saw that Moses turned aside to see. Then God called out of the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 vote
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Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

Jesus is quoting from the scene in Exodus 3:6 where YHWH is speaking to Moses for the very first time. 6 Moreover HE said, “I am the God of your father—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the ...
Read Less Pray More's user avatar
1 vote

Does the grammatical context of 1 Chronicles 29:10 allow for it to be declaring that God is our Father?

Luke's answer was good, and is likely the correct answer for many minds. However, I just asked an Israeli, a Jewish rabbi, and he explained it more carefully. His first, and almost immediate, ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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1 vote

Who is "your God" in John 8:54?

it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God:  Yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him,...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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1 vote

Does John 17:23 teach that the Father loves all believers as much as he loves Jesus?

John 17:23 "I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one , so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me". ESV My emphasis "kathos/even ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

There are some very good and enlightening answers here, to which I am grateful for the insight. Let's not completely over-complicate our thinking on this, however. Jesus was not exclusively teaching ...
Scott Bishop's user avatar
1 vote

If Jesus is God, how can we make sense of Him calling the Father "my God" in John 20:17?

Jesus is fully man, and this means that He fully has, is fully possessing the created nature of man. Now, the one who creates this nature is the Creator, God. Thus, Jesus as being a man in the sense ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
1 vote

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

If all Jesus was referring to was the fact that, at that moment, he was a human being while his Father was God in heaven, that would have been a pointless statement to make, because it was true of all ...
moron's user avatar
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1 vote

In John 14:28, what did Jesus mean when he said “my Father is greater than I?”

Deference Any father, by right as a father, is due deference1 from his son, which deference includes honor (τιμή).2 Moses commanded children, “Honor your mother and father.”3 Hence, the Lord Jesus ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar

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