8
votes
Which Preposition is Used Concerning Paul's Body in Galatians 6:17?
The Greek preposition ἐν is predominately translated into English as “in” but is indeed sometimes translated as “on”. The apostle Paul refers to στίγματα (lemma στίγμα), which refer to marks made on ...
- 11.4k
7
votes
Galatians 3:23 Guarded in protective custody or held captive as prisoners under the law? Translation of ἐφρουρούμεθα συγκλειόμενοι
The key to understanding Paul's thought in v23 is to note from the next verse that the law is described as our PAIDAGOGOS.
Social changes have made it almost impossible to find a concise translation ...
- 5,624
6
votes
What does Paul mean by 'one word' in Galatians 5:14?
The "Word" is an allusion to what the OT calls, "words", namely commandments, specifically
Deut 10:4 - Then He wrote on the tablets, like the first writing, the Ten Words [ie, ...
- 95.8k
6
votes
What's the correct translation of Galatians 5:17
While the NIV translation appears to be a command,. the Greek is definitely not. Both the verbs θέλητε (you might wish) and ποιῆτε (you might do) are subjunctive (ie, not imperative). Here is my ...
- 95.8k
5
votes
Does righteousness come from the law or not?
We need to read on and follow through the logic of the next Galatians chapter, so that we can understand why Paul is saying this.
It is the case, as Ezekiel affirms, that keeping of the law WOULD lead ...
- 5,624
4
votes
Is Galatians 1:4 referring to the current time and location or an apocalyptic period and world-wide condition?
Should αἰών be translated as age or world?
It should probably be translated "age" instead of "world". I think the ambiguity might be due to the English word “world” and not the ...
- 12.1k
4
votes
What is Galatians 5:19 specifically referring to when it says dissensions & factions are an act of the flesh?
First, according to Rom 13:1-7, there is nothing fundamentally wrong with politics (However, there are definitely some bad politicians then and now.) Politics necessarily involves differences and ...
- 95.8k
3
votes
What does Paul mean by 'one word' in Galatians 5:14?
For the whole law is fulfilled in one word: “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” (ESV)
ὁ γὰρ πᾶς νόμος ἐν ἑνὶ λόγῳ πεπλήρωται ἐν τῷ ἀγαπήσεις τὸν πλησίον σου ὡς σεαυτόν
Paul makes a similar, ...
- 15.4k
3
votes
Dropped articles for νόμος in Galatians 3
This question has been interesting to research and has given me more insight into Galatians chapter 3, so I thank the OP for presenting it.
On page 231 of his book 'Beyond the Basics' (in the middle ...
- 29.6k
3
votes
Why does Paul say the law came after 430 years in Galatians 3:17?
It is certainly true that all 10 commandments as enunciated in Ex 20, existed well before Sinai - see the appendix below. Some of the Ceremonial and sacrificial laws also existed as correctly ...
- 95.8k
3
votes
What's the correct translation of Galatians 5:17
The NIV translators seem to have focused on the fact that θέλητε (thelēte) is the active imperative of θέλω (thelō) (i.e. a command), but I think they, unlike other translators it seems, might be ...
- 12.1k
2
votes
Is Galatians 1:4 referring to the current time and location or an apocalyptic period and world-wide condition?
Background: The letter written by the apostle Paul to the Christians in Galatia dates from between 50 to 57 A.D. The churches in Galatia were (clockwise from the south) Laodicea, Ephesus, Smyrna, ...
- 8,764
2
votes
Is Galatians 1:4 referring to the current time and location or an apocalyptic period and world-wide condition?
It would be hard to imagine that Paul is referring to the localised situations of the Galatian’s as ‘the present evil age’. The problem Paul is dealing with is influence from within the church, from ...
- 317
2
votes
Is Galatians 1:4 referring to the current time and location or an apocalyptic period and world-wide condition?
Whether one translates αἰών (aion) as "age" or "world" in Gal 1:4 is somewhat irrelevant - the meaning remains the same. My answer to the OP's question is NO - the present evil ...
- 95.8k
2
votes
Would the Romans have known what Paul meant by "works of the law"?
Jews in Italy There was a large Jewish close-knit community with a synagogue in Rome, as well as other major capitals in nations around the Mid-east, ever since the Diaspora, when Jews were expelled ...
- 1,820
2
votes
Was Paul tacitly referring to Moses as an Angel worshipper in Colossions 2:16-18?
In his letter, chapter 2 of Colossians is an appeal to first century Christians to grasp the significance of "the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ." (verse 2) He explains how,...
- 21.3k
2
votes
Was Paul tacitly referring to Moses as an Angel worshipper in Colossions 2:16-18?
Paul is simply telling the members in Colosse that (inter alia) worshiping of angels is prohibited and not to become distracted by such practices, Col 2:18.
Let no man beguile you of your reward in a ...
- 95.8k
2
votes
What significance does ‘God’s law’ have in Romans 8:7,if any, with regards to those who set their mind, on the things of the Spirit?
Nobody can have their minds set on the things of the Spirit until they have been set free from the law's condemnation of sin. For that is what God's law does - it condemns all who break it, and ...
- 21.3k
2
votes
Which Preposition is Used Concerning Paul's Body in Galatians 6:17?
The text in question, the second half of Gal 6:17 reads:
ἐγὼ γὰρ τὰ στίγματα τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ἐν τῷ σώματί μου βαστάζω. = for I bear
on my body the brand-marks of Jesus. [NASB]
We cannot be too precise ...
- 95.8k
2
votes
What does Paul mean by 'one word' in Galatians 5:14?
The Greek word λόγος is not equivalent to the English word word. Below quotes the first two meanings of λόγος from BADG. I stopped there because the context of Gal. 5:14 is law, thus fitting ②ⓑ ...
- 19.6k
2
votes
Does Paul state Christ was present when Abraham received the promise?
Not so fast - all these English translations are adding prepositions that do not exist in the Greek. Let me translate Gal 3:19 literally:
Why then the Law? Because of transgressions - [it = law] was ...
- 95.8k
2
votes
What's the correct translation of Galatians 5:17
Though popular, the NIV is not a reliable translation as the translating committee decided to make deletions and change over 30,000 words. (See Poor and Misleading)
Young's Literal Translation (YLT) ...
- 9,783
2
votes
What's the correct translation of Galatians 5:17
ἵνα μὴ ἃ ἂν θέλητε ταῦτα ποιῆτε
so that...
ἵνα μὴ ἃ ἂν θέλητε ταῦτα ποιῆτε
so that, whatever you want [to do],
Notes:1. ἃ ἂν refers to an indefinite antecedent, hence the use of ἂν. ἃ ἂν does not ...
- 11.4k
2
votes
What is the sequence in Galatians 2:17?
Paul is actually arguing against the "hardline" Jewish objection to associating with Gentiles, so his argument goes like this;
vv15-16 WE believe that we are justified by faith in Christ, ...
- 5,624
2
votes
Does righteousness come from the law or not?
The Patriarchs were of course righteous, but in a relative sense, relative to the advent of Christ, for since Adam's fall, all Patriarchs, Prophets, Law-givers were righteous in the context of ...
- 10.2k
1
vote
What does Paul mean by 'one word' in Galatians 5:14?
One word ἑνὶ λόγῳ; the word implies a command here; it is used as a metonymy. "Say the word and I will kill him". NET Bible "For the whole law can be summed up in a single commandment&...
- 4,958
1
vote
What significance does ‘God’s law’ have in Romans 8:7,if any, with regards to those who set their mind, on the things of the Spirit?
I suggest that "God's law" is to be found in Matthew ch22 vv37-40;
"You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind This is the first ...
- 5,624
1
vote
What significance does ‘God’s law’ have in Romans 8:7,if any, with regards to those who set their mind, on the things of the Spirit?
We are called to fulfill the righteous requirement of the law even if we are no longer bound by the letter (Rom 7:6, Rom 3:31). Indeed, it was for that very purpose that Christ was sent into the world,...
- 3,036
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