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According to Bruce M. Metzger, in his able Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (Stuttgart: Deutschebibelgesellschaft, 2012), the academy places their highest certitude "{A}" that the verse of Mark 11:26 was not part of the original autograph. On Page 93 of his commentary, Metzger says that ...although it might be thought that the sentence was ...


5

The Greek behind your question is “τινων (of whomsoever) αφητε (you may remit) τας (the) αμαρτιας (sins) αφιενται (they are remitted) αυτοις (to them) αν τινων (whoesoever) κρατητε (you may retain) κεκρατηνται (they have been retained)”. This verse is often understood as equivalent to that found in other places such as Matthew 16:19: “ο (whatever) εαν δησης ...


5

Here the contradiction is only apparent, for the semantics of the "works" in Rom. 4:6 (let us, for a convenience call it "work 1") does not encompass the action of turning with a faith and intellectual act of repentance ("meta-noia" - repentance - means 'change of one's mind/vision', thus it is a conscious intellectual act) but just the observance of Mosaic ...


4

Like many things, confusion can arise from a single word or the merest accident. David says how great it is to be someone who's sin is never counted against them David did not say our sins are never counted against us. He said blessed is the one whose sin is covered, so that it isn't counted against them. When we come to Christ, when we confess our ...


4

The word "forgive*"(aphiemi-to send forth*) implies a legal action: it holds one 'harmless' from a legal debt. To be declared "aphiemi", means one's debt has been satisfied; in the case of Matt. 12:30-32, one's penalty of 'sin and blasphemy' shall be "aphiemi" them-following, of course, the prescription of 1 John 1:9,"If we confess our sins; He is faithful ...


4

Exodus 23:21 MT reads: הִשָּׁ֧מֶר מִפָּנָ֛יו וּשְׁמַ֥ע בְּקֹל֖וֹ אַל־תַּמֵּ֣ר בּ֑וֹ כִּ֣י לֹ֤א יִשָּׂא֙ לְפִשְׁעֲכֶ֔ם כִּ֥י שְׁמִ֖י בְּקִרְבּֽוֹ The phrase הִשָּׁ֧מֶר מִפָּנָ֛יו is "Watch out in his presence", or "Be careful of him". The NIV elides this phrase with the next, וּשְׁמַ֥ע בְּקֹל֖וֹ, "and listen to his voice", which means "do what he says" to ...


3

The Idea in Brief The apparent reading is that blood cleanses from sin, but that water provides complete cleansing in respect to the removal of death (covenant separation). In the Hebrew Bible, blood atones for sin, but it is water that washes away death. This washing away therefore restores one to covenant relationship to the Lord. In this respect, Jewish ...


3

While this topic is usually called the "Unforgivable Sin" I believe that is a bad translation and it should really be called the "Unignorable Sin". Verse 32 is: Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. (NIV) The Greek ...


3

Does God really forget our sins? The Bible never says that God will "forget" out sins, rather we are told that God will not remember them. Forgetting is passive; like forgetting where you put the car keys. Forgetting is not done deliberately. However, when God declares that he will "not remember" our sins, that is active. The word "remember" (זָכַר) has ...


3

I'd like to add something to @curiousdanni answer (and his comments) but from Aramaic perspective. In Aramaic Peshitta the word forgiven in Matthew 12:30-32 is ܢܶܫܬ݁ܒ݂ܶܩ which can also have meanings of left, ignored, omitted, dismissed (see William Jennings' Lexicon to the Syriac New Testament) and it is used in other verses in such meaning. For example: ...


2

We may notice that Jesus 'saw their faith' and then said 'your sins are forgiven'. The interpretation that will not contradict the doctrines of scripture which has it that anyone with faith in Messiah is forgiven, can only mean this: the words 'your are forgiven' are declarative of the condition that Jesus saw directly resulting from the fact that they had ...


2

The "Son of Man" in Matthew 9:6 was a common Greek phrase ("ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου") to refer to the Messiah. The "Son of Man" in Matthew 9:6 is Jesus Himself; Jesus refers to Himself as "the Son of Man" as a way of saying that He is the Messiah the Jews were looking for. The title "Son of Man" evolved in Jewish culture from Daniel 7:13 I was watching in ...


2

Quotation from one of the answers above: "For example, the NIV translation of Luke you cite states: He told them ... "repentance for the forgiveness of sins will be preached ..." but this is actually not what the Greek text says. The literal Greek reads: εἶπεν αὐτοῖς ... μετάνοιαν καὶ ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν εἰς πάντα τὰ ἔθνη He told them ... "...


2

The NIV translation of Isaiah 59:20 may not be exactly accurate. There is a disagreement between the Masoretic Text and the Greek Septuagint here. The Septuagint version of the passage reads: And the deliverer shall come for Sion’s sake, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob. whereas in the Masoretic Text: He shall come as redeemer to Zion, To ...


2

In Luke's usage what is in view in "repentance" is specifically a change of mind in regard to one's own behavior which involves a turning to or returning to obedience to God, which is also largely how we use the English word: Repentance If one were to change one's mind from painting one's car red instead of blue, that isn't the "repentance" in view in ...


2

Repentance: Strong's 3341, transliterated as "metanoia", and is literally a "change of mind", and is brought about by a condition of sorrow and abhorrence for past misdeeds or evil actions. Young's Literal Translation of Luke 24:47 reads, " and reformation and remission of sins to be proclaimed in his name to all the nations, ...


2

The Bible bans the practice of triumphalism in places like Obad 1:12, Prov 24:17. This is further strengthened by other statements that say something like, "Vengeance is mine, I will repay, says the Lord", eg, Heb 10:30, Rom 12:19, Deut 32:35, etc. The Bible also contains many prayers asking that other do not gloat when we fall, eg, Obad 1:13, ...


1

I think we need to expand the passages a bit and understand the type of literature we are reading in Psalms and in Proverbs. The different literary styles of the bible Proverbs is wisdom literature. It compares and contrasts actions and uses exaggeration to prove a point. They are straight forward and meant to make young men wise. Psalms are poems and songs ...


1

Question Restatement: How is Jesus' declaration, to forgive sins, reconciled with the previous sacrificial system. If I understand this question, this question has multiple parts, (*I think): Was it necessary for Jesus to verbally state that they were forgiven, and if not, why did he do it? Jesus' authority to forgive sins; Whether the shedding of blood is ...


1

For answering this question one needs to first establish axiom on God. The axiom is that God is Creator of all humans and loves all humans, the bearers of His image and likeness and thus, He also wants "all to be saved and come to the knowledge of Truth" (1 Timothy 2:4). He loves also sinners and awaits in His long-suffering for their repentance (I ...


1

Credit Reference Link: https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/article/should-we-pray-the-imprecatory-psalms/ Credit Author: William Ross Date of Publication: March 17, 2015 Article Title: Should We Pray the Imprecatory Psalms? March 17, 2015 By William Ross In light of the recent execution of 21 Christians and capture of hundreds more in Syria, perhaps it’s ...


1

Matthew 5.27-28 "27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28 But I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lustful intent has already committed adultery with her in his heart." Jesus raised the bar from outward behavior to the thoughts of our heart. On the other hand, I assume you are referring to the passage that ...


1

In Exodus 23:21 what does “Do not rebel against him; he will not forgive your rebellion, since my Name is in him” mean ? Paul seems to suggest that this angel is the preexistent Christ. In Exodus, or in Paul ? (After all, Moses and Paul are two different persons). Make up your mind, and let us know. What does it mean that he has God's name “in him” ? ...


1

The 'Name' In Jewish (or Semitic) culture, someone's 'name' was their authority, reputation or their status. For lack of a better description, they were their 'name'. It wasn't just the word you use when you address them—and was seen as a distinct thereto, insofar as it could function without mention of a specific 'word'. As such, when this angel 'had' יהוה (...


1

Koulaki Megalo Etymologiko Liddell & Scott, Greek-English Lexicon ὑπό C.WITH ACCUS. II.of subjection, ποιεῖσθαι ὑπὸ σφᾶς id=Thuc., etc. Georg Autenrieth's Homeric Lexicon μένω c. c. acc. & inf., wait “οὐκ ἔμειν᾽ ἐλθεῖν τράπεζαν νυμφίαν” P. 3.16 The word ὑπέμεινεν in the context implies "waiting patiently", or "submitted unto", or "resolved ...


1

In Luke 6:37, the word is a form of "ἀπολύω". As LSJ points out, it comes pretty directly from "ἀπο" (away from) + "λύω" (loose), with various uses including "undo", "release", "dismiss", etc. Because the previous two clauses use "κρίνω" (decide) and "καταδικάζω" (judge against) I tend to prefer A.I.2.b in this case: freq. in legal sense, ἀ. τῆς αἰτίης ...


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