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The punctuation in the NKJV of bracketing the phrase in Rom 7:18, "that is, in my flesh" suggests it is simply a parenthetical remark. Other versions simply use two commas rather than parentheses. The use of the parentheses is not intended to suggest that the phrase is spurious. The text of Rom 7:18 is undisputed. The convention in the NLJV for ...


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The structure in James 1:27 is τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ which fits Daniel Wallace's example of the Granville Sharp Rule below. This means that God and the Father are the same. Note no article in front of Father in Greek; literally, the God and Father. Statement of the Granville Sharp Rule: both substantives (nouns, participles, adjectives) refer to the same ...


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Uncertain Hebrew Phrase Jewish scholars state the meaning of the phrase נשקו־בר, which the OP states means yearn for purity or kiss the son as in the NIV and others, is uncertain: d pay homage in good faith,d lest He be angered, and your way be doomed in the mere flash of His anger. Happy are all who take refuge in Him (Psalm 2:12 Tanakh 1985) פן־יאנף ...


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The differences in the translations isn't a matter of how to translate, but what is the original text to translate base on the textual variations that we have. Bruce Metzger discussed this in his textual commentary. The comment enclosed in [] at the end is a decision by Allen Wikgren disputing the committee's majority decision. The majority decision was ...


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IMHO, the best translation of the word σημεῖον (sémeion) is "portent" or "omen", or in more vernacular, "sign". Note the two main meanings as listed in BDAG: a sign or distinguishing mark whereby something is known, sign token, indication, eg, Luke 1:12, Matt 26:48, etc. an event that is an indication of confirmation of ...


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The Greek word 'semeion' is one of John's favorite words. Mark used it 6 times. Matthew 9 Luke 9 John 17 times in his gospel, and 7 times in Revelations. Thayer's Greek Lexicon a sign, mark, token; universally, that by which a person or a thing is distinguished from others and known a sign, prodigy, portent, i. e. an ...


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I would say in this case, the plural form is just a Hebraicism and has no theological significance. The Hebrew word for heaven is "shamayim" which has the ending of a dual form, related to "mayim" or "waters". This is a very old morphological form and does not mean that there are two of them anymore than there are two "...


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Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3? The ESV contradicts itself because it has an unabashed 'Trinitarian' bias, as do many a translation with us today. Their translation of the original Greek, in John 1:18, is 'gross', to put it bluntly. They not only remove 'begotten' when translating 'monogenes', which is best translated as '...


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The words נשקו בר is a Hebrew idiom, and like many idioms it is impossible to fully translate. To begin, here is a rough word by word translation, although, this sometimes does not explain a phrase fully as in other languages words have different connotations. נשקו is the male plural imperative form of the verb נָשַׁק which is of the פָעַל form and means, in ...


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Would the rich man have extended the invitation to the second group if it had not been rejected by the first group in Luke 14:16-24? The answer to your question is NO" Why? The banquet is an invitation for the " holy brothers, partakers of the heavenly calling" ( Hebrews 3:1 NASB). Jesus reveals that a relatively small number "little ...


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What is key is the phrase "at the time for the banquet" (τῇ ὥρᾳ τοῦ δείπνου). Thus, everything was already prepared and would go to waste if no one came to the banquet. If he had found out earlier, before the food would be wasted, he probably would have looked to invite others. He had the choice: let all the food be wasted, or find others to come ...


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In NKJV (Rom. 7:18) round parentheses are a punctuation matter of how non-restrictive the phrase is. It does not indicate a lack of confidence in the underlying Greek text. A restrictive phrase has no punctuation. Non-restrictive has punctuation setting it apart, starting with commas. Round parentheses () means it's even less essential to the meaning of ...


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Berean Literal Bible James 1:27 Pure and undefiled religion before the God and Father [g2316 g2532 g3962] is this: to visit orphans and widows in their tribulation; to keep oneself unstained from the world. The phrase g2316 g2532 g3962 appears 13 times in the NT, 1 Peter 1: 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the One according to His ...


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The phrase "God and Father" refers to the same person. I think some arguments like Sharpe's rule emphasis this. See all other references of "God and father" used in the NT to know that there is no distinction, but both nouns are predicate with each other, defining the same God. [Rom 15:6 ESV] that together you may with one voice glorify ...


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It is easy to imagine that the rich man of the story probably would not have invited the poor, or people from the highways, to his banquet had his original guests shown up. However, that is a hypothetical and uninformative as to God's intentions for Israel and the Gentiles. All metaphors have limitations and some metaphors are meant to extend more deeply ...


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English Bibles are not changing a plural into a singular, they are translating. Translation requires expressing the same idea in different languages with different conventions for using singular and plural. That means in one language it may be singular and in another it may be plural. To get this right requires a deep understanding of both languages. For ...


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Job 29:2 English Standard Version “Oh, that I were as in the months of old [H6924], as in the days when God watched over me, Psalm 74:12 English Standard Version Yet God my King is from of old [H6924], working salvation in the midst of the earth. Why would translators use the phrase "is from of old"? ESV did it to be consistent with the usage ...


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Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3? Clearly the interpretive translators have lost the plot and desperately hope no one will notice. These additions and alterations only serve to prop up a frail construct of a tripart God or a, not as popular, bipart God. Which of the two wordings is correct? One doesn't need to be a Greek ...


1

So the Greek goes κατὰ τὸ πλοῦτος τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ ἧς ἐπερίσσευσεν εἰς ἡμᾶς (A), ἐν πάσῃ σοφίᾳ καὶ φρονήσει (B), γνωρίσας ἡμῖν τὸ μυστήριον τοῦ θελήματος αὐτοῦ (C) ... which would be the equivalent of according to the riches of his grace; Wherein he hath abounded toward us (A) in all wisdom and prudence; (B) Having made known unto us the mystery of his ...


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The word seemion occurs 70 times in the Christian Greek scriptures, according to Bagster’s ‘Englishman’s Greek Concordance of the New Testament’. There it is variously rendered as sign / signs; miracle / miracles (19 times); token (once in 2 Thess. 3:17). The vast majority is ‘sign/s’ = 50 times. But you only ask for the meaning in the Book of the Revelation....


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Psalm 56:1 "Regarding the dove of distant silence" (עַל־י֬וֹנַת אֵ֣לֶם רְ֖חֹקִים) This refers to David (דָוִד) while in Philistine captivity - like a caged bird. "when the Philistines seized [him] in Gath" (בֶּֽאֱחֹ֨ז אוֹת֖וֹ פְלִשְׁתִּ֣ים בְּגַֽת)


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Ps 56:1 is an example of a Psalm title, which can mean one of several things, including the direction to the music director/choirmaster. The "Dove" is probably part of the name of a tune. From Holman Bible Dictionary: Part of the superscription of Psalms 56:1 (NRSV; compare REB, NIV) probably a reference to the secular tune to which the psalm was ...


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