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10 votes

Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?

The King James Version translators were careful to translate as near as possible to the original. In this case, the Hebrew spellings are different. In Jeremiah 32:28, "Nebuchadrezzar" is ...
Biblasia's user avatar
  • 4,933
5 votes

In Romans 7:18 why is the phrase "that is,in my flesh" bracketed in the NKJV?

The punctuation in the NKJV of bracketing the phrase in Rom 7:18, "that is, in my flesh" suggests it is simply a parenthetical remark. Other versions simply use two commas rather than ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes

What does "Grace upon grace" mean?

Indeed it is a strange and at a first glance an illogical passage, because it says that advent of Jesus is "grace instead of grace" (the ἀντί is 'instead of', 'substitute for'), thus intimating that ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

Why does the KJV translate בָּאֲפֵ֖ר as ashes in 1 Kings 20:38

The root אפר, vocalized with a "tzeirei" vowel ('ey' sound, looks like ..) under the aleph, means ashes. Here, it's vocalized with a 'patach' ('ah' sound, looks like _ ) under the aleph and ...
Binyomin's user avatar
  • 425
4 votes

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3?

The differences in the translations isn't a matter of how to translate, but what is the original text to translate base on the textual variations that we have. Bruce Metzger discussed this in his ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.4k
4 votes

Why do English bibles change "Yearn for Purity" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to "Kiss the Son" or "Kiss his Son"?

Uncertain Hebrew Phrase Jewish scholars state the meaning of the phrase נשקו־בר, which the OP states means yearn for purity or kiss the son as in the NIV and others, is uncertain: d pay homage in ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?

The structure in James 1:27 is τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ which fits Daniel Wallace's example of the Granville Sharp Rule below. This means that God and the Father are the same. Note no article in front of ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.4k
3 votes
Accepted

Why do English bibles change "Yearn for Purity" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to "Kiss the Son" or "Kiss his Son"?

The words נשקו בר is a Hebrew idiom, and like many idioms it is impossible to fully translate. To begin, here is a rough word by word translation, although, this sometimes does not explain a phrase ...
aefrrs's user avatar
  • 774
3 votes
Accepted

What is the status of the word "heaven" in Matthew 18:19?

I would say in this case, the plural form is just a Hebraicism and has no theological significance. The Hebrew word for heaven is "shamayim" which has the ending of a dual form, related to &...
Robert's user avatar
  • 8,422
3 votes

What is the meaning of the Greek word 'semeion' in Revelation

IMHO, the best translation of the word σημεῖον (sémeion) is "portent" or "omen", or in more vernacular, "sign". Note the two main meanings as listed in BDAG: a sign or ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
3 votes

The meaning of Gen. 20:16 AV

According to the KJV, Sarah is reproved/rebuked for misleading Abimelech by saying that her husband Abraham is only a half-brother. Abimelech himself claims in v. 5 that he had no intention of ...
bach's user avatar
  • 7,251
3 votes
Accepted

Psalm 22:1 KJV vs Tehillim vs ESV

"Doe of the Dawn" appears to be an accurate translation. אַיָּלָה (ʾayyālāh) means "doe". (Morphologically, it is the feminine of אַיָּל, meaning "deer.") The word in question, אַיֶּ֥לֶת (ʾayyelet), ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.4k
3 votes

Why does the KJV add more to Matthew 19:9 vs other translations?

The difference between the versions is due to the choice of underlying Greek text: the ESV, NIV, NASB and most modern versions follow the NA28 and UBS5 text. the KJV and NKJV follow the Textus ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
2 votes
Accepted

Is the ESV reading of Ecclesiastes 11:5 faithful to the Hebrew?

A note in The Oxford Jewish Study Bible, which is based on the Jewish Publication Society Tanakh indicates that there is some disagreement between different manuscripts of the Masoretic Text. The JPS ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
2 votes

"At table" vs "At the table" in Luke 22:14,27

As Perry pointed out, the word "table" does not even appear in the original Greek of Luke 22:14. Also, both the KJV and the Douay-Rheims do not use the word. Both bibles translate the verse ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
2 votes

Why is the ESV translation of Ephesians 4 so terrible?

Your question needs to be rewritten, it is unnecessarily aggressive, regardless I will put forward a defense. The translator vs the preacher? Whose job is it to bring out this particular meaning, ...
L0ckz0r's user avatar
  • 485
2 votes

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3?

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3? The ESV contradicts itself because it has an unabashed 'Trinitarian' bias, as do many a translation with us today. Their translation ...
Olde English's user avatar
  • 2,653
2 votes

In Romans 7:18 why is the phrase "that is,in my flesh" bracketed in the NKJV?

In NKJV (Rom. 7:18) round parentheses are a punctuation matter of how non-restrictive the phrase is. It does not indicate a lack of confidence in the underlying Greek text. A restrictive phrase has ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.4k
2 votes

Would the rich man have extended the invitation to the second group if it had not been rejected by the first group in Luke 14:16-24?

What is key is the phrase "at the time for the banquet" (τῇ ὥρᾳ τοῦ δείπνου). Thus, everything was already prepared and would go to waste if no one came to the banquet. If he had found out ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.4k
2 votes

Would the rich man have extended the invitation to the second group if it had not been rejected by the first group in Luke 14:16-24?

Would the rich man have extended the invitation to the second group if it had not been rejected by the first group in Luke 14:16-24? The answer to your question is NO" Why? The banquet is an ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
  • 13.9k
2 votes
Accepted

Why can the ESV remove "Unless" from Psalm 27:13?

Ps 27:13 is a very difficult verse to translate because it makes no sense in the Hebrew and is either corrupt or incomplete. The original Hebrew, literally says this (Smith's) Unless I believed to ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
2 votes

How best to understand the NLT translation of Jeremiah 34:18?

I surmise that the oath which accompanied the making of a covenant was something like; "May the Lord do the same to me, and more also if I do not keep the words of this oath". The meaning of ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes

Why does the KJV add more to Matthew 19:9 vs other translations?

Bruce Metzger's textual commentary discusses the reason the committee decided on the textual reading for the Greek text usually used in modern translations while the KJV used the Textus Receptus. In ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.4k
2 votes
Accepted

Is the ESV's rendering of Proverbs 14:1 at odds with the common rendering from other translations?

I agree that as it is presented. the ESV of Prov 14:1 is self-contradictory! The key translation problem in Prov 14:1 is how to render אִוֶּלֶת (ivveleth) which is usually translated "folly" ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k

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