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9 votes

Why does the ESV use "surely" in Genesis 2:16 when all others say "freely"?

I do not pretend to know the minds of the ESV revisers. But there is some justification for their rendering of Genesis 2:16, although exploring the (possible) reasoning cannot be done briefly. Here we ...
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9 votes

What does "Grace upon grace" mean?

On his entry for the preposition ἀντί, Wilke (translated by Thayer) wrote,1 e. of succession to the place of another: Ἀρχβασιλεύει ἀντὶ Ἡρώδου in place of Herod, Mt. 2:22, (1 K. 11:44; Hdt. 1, 108; ...
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9 votes

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

This interesting question has two dimensions: (1) the meaning of παρέστησεν ἑαυτὸν ... ἐν πολλοῖς τεκμηρίοις [parestēsen heauton ... en pollois tekmēriois = "he presented himself ... by many ...
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5 votes

In Romans 7:18 why is the phrase "that is,in my flesh" bracketed in the NKJV?

The punctuation in the NKJV of bracketing the phrase in Rom 7:18, "that is, in my flesh" suggests it is simply a parenthetical remark. Other versions simply use two commas rather than ...
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4 votes

Why do English bibles change "Yearn for Purity" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to "Kiss the Son" or "Kiss his Son"?

Uncertain Hebrew Phrase Jewish scholars state the meaning of the phrase נשקו־בר, which the OP states means yearn for purity or kiss the son as in the NIV and others, is uncertain: d pay homage in ...
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4 votes
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Why does the KJV translate בָּאֲפֵ֖ר as ashes in 1 Kings 20:38

The root אפר, vocalized with a "tzeirei" vowel ('ey' sound, looks like ..) under the aleph, means ashes. Here, it's vocalized with a 'patach' ('ah' sound, looks like _ ) under the aleph and ...
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  • 415
4 votes

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3?

The differences in the translations isn't a matter of how to translate, but what is the original text to translate base on the textual variations that we have. Bruce Metzger discussed this in his ...
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4 votes
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Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?

The structure in James 1:27 is τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ which fits Daniel Wallace's example of the Granville Sharp Rule below. This means that God and the Father are the same. Note no article in front of ...
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3 votes

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

Acts 1:3 οἷς καὶ παρέστησεν ἑαυτὸν ζῶντα μετὰ τὸ παθεῖν αὐτὸν ἐν πολλοῖς τεκμηρίοις, δι᾽ ἡμερῶν τεσσεράκοντα ὀπτανόμενος αὐτοῖς καὶ λέγων τὰ περὶ τῆς βασιλείας τοῦ θεοῦ· τεκμηρίοις The lexicons ...
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3 votes
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What does the Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής mean in Acts 14:15?

There is no exegetical warrant necessary here: the meaning "having the same nature" is perfectly in line with ordinary Ancient Greek usage. One of the principal meanings of the noun πάθος is ...
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  • 377
3 votes

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

There do not appear to be any text-critical concerns with the Greek text, only variation in the English translation of the word τεκμήριον (tekmērion, Strong’s G5039). The word is well-attested in ...
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  • 2,481
3 votes

What does "Grace upon grace" mean?

Verses 1-18 of John chapter 1 can be read as a complete paragraph. At no point does John reveal Jesus' given name in this paragraph; rather, he calls him simply "the Word" and "the ...
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  • 6,908
3 votes

Is the ESV rendering "My Spirit shall not abide in man forever" in Genesis 6:3 accurate?

According to the footnote in the NET Bible, the word used here is יָדוֹן (yadon), which only occurs here. Apparently, it might be derived from the word "strive" (din), but then it should have been ...
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  • 131
3 votes

Various translations of Psalm 19:3

The verse appears in the Masoretic Text and LXX as follows, respectively - Psalm 19:3 (MT) 3 אֵֽין־אֹמֶר וְאֵין דְּבָרִים בְּלִי נִשְׁמָע קֹולָֽם׃ The literal translation - There is no ...
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3 votes

What is the meaning of the Greek word 'semeion' in Revelation

IMHO, the best translation of the word σημεῖον (sémeion) is "portent" or "omen", or in more vernacular, "sign". Note the two main meanings as listed in BDAG: a sign or ...
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3 votes

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3?

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3? Clearly the interpretive translators have lost the plot and desperately hope no one will notice. These additions and alterations only ...
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  • 6,081
3 votes

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3?

Why does the ESV contradict itself in John 1:18 versus John 17:3? The ESV contradicts itself because it has an unabashed 'Trinitarian' bias, as do many a translation with us today. Their translation ...
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2 votes

Various translations of Psalm 19:3

This is a case of ambiguity in the translation, as some of the explanatory words like "where" or "which" are not present in the Hebrew. Unfortunately it is very hard to put into English without making ...
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2 votes
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Who is the good and beautiful person in Zechariah 9:17?

tl;dr The Hebrew is also ambiguous. In the Hebrew: ‏ (16) וְֽהוֹשִׁיעָ֞ם יְהוָ֧ה אֱלֹהֵיהֶ֛ם בַּיּ֥וֹם הַה֖וּא כְּצֹ֣אן עַמּ֑וֹ כִּ֚י אַבְנֵי־נֵ֔זֶר מִֽתְנוֹסְס֖וֹת עַל־אַדְמָתֽוֹ׃ (17) כִּ֥י ...
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  • 499
2 votes

"Cakes of Raisins" in Hosea 3

Raisin cakes were an item used in pagan worship1. The NET Bible makes this explicit: ...although they turn to other gods and love to offer raisin cakes to idols. The same practice is spoken of in ...
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2 votes

Why does the ESV use "surely" in Genesis 2:16 when all others say "freely"?

While I partially agree with Davïd's analysis, I think it misses the point and context. Let's start with some fundamentals. First, lets consider the Jewish theory that while in the Garden of Eden, ...
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  • 4,040
2 votes

Why does the ESV use "surely" in Genesis 2:16 when all others say "freely"?

Even if this "surely" in Genesis 2:16 were meant to imply predestination (which does not seem likely), it does not refer to eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, but to eating from ...
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  • 21
2 votes
Accepted

Psalm 22:1 KJV vs Tehillim vs ESV

"Doe of the Dawn" appears to be an accurate translation. אַיָּלָה (ʾayyālāh) means "doe". (Morphologically, it is the feminine of אַיָּל, meaning "deer.") The word in question, אַיֶּ֥לֶת (ʾayyelet), ...
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2 votes
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Is the ESV reading of Ecclesiastes 11:5 faithful to the Hebrew?

A note in The Oxford Jewish Study Bible, which is based on the Jewish Publication Society Tanakh indicates that there is some disagreement between different manuscripts of the Masoretic Text. The JPS ...
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2 votes

"At table" vs "At the table" in Luke 22:14,27

As Perry pointed out, the word "table" does not even appear in the original Greek of Luke 22:14. Also, both the KJV and the Douay-Rheims do not use the word. Both bibles translate the verse ...
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2 votes

Why is the ESV translation of Ephesians 4 so terrible?

Your question needs to be rewritten, it is unnecessarily aggressive, regardless I will put forward a defense. The translator vs the preacher? Whose job is it to bring out this particular meaning, ...
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  • 465
2 votes

The meaning of Gen. 20:16 AV

According to the KJV, Sarah is reproved/rebuked for misleading Abimelech by saying that her husband Abraham is only a half-brother. Abimelech himself claims in v. 5 that he had no intention of ...
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2 votes
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What is the status of the word "heaven" in Matthew 18:19?

I would say in this case, the plural form is just a Hebraicism and has no theological significance. The Hebrew word for heaven is "shamayim" which has the ending of a dual form, related to &...
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