Skip to main content
40 votes

Why might Paul emphasize FOUR spatial dimensions when describing the love of Christ (Eph. 3:18)?

Paul didn't take analytic geometry. People in his day would look at spatial dimensions based on how they would measure them, not on a coordinate system. They could measure length all at once, and ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.3k
14 votes
Accepted

Why so many differing Greek words rendered “one”?

Unlike English, Greek is a heavily (or highly) inflected language.1 In English, one could say/write, “One Lord, one faith, one baptism,” and the adjective “one” does not change spelling according to ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
12 votes
Accepted

In Ephesians 1:7, whose blood, the Son’s or the Father’s?

V6 ends with the words "grace which he freely bestowed upon us in the Beloved" (RSV). That is, in his beloved Son, the previously mentioned Jesus Christ ("through Jesus Christ", v5)...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
12 votes
Accepted

Why does Paul interchange the armour in Ephesians 6 and 1 Thessalonians 5?

The two passages have slightly different contexts. Paul is writing to the Thessalonians in Chapter 5:1ff on the need to remain watchful because one does not know when the Lord will return (... the day ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
11 votes

Why so many differing Greek words rendered “one”?

All the words for "one" are different declensions of the same word (εἷς, μία, ἕν in the lexicon). It is declined to match the noun it modifies. ἓν - is nominative neuter singular μιᾷ - is dative ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.3k
11 votes
Accepted

Is Ephesians 6:5-9 inapplicable with modern Christians who don’t have a “slave”?

One could consider the master/slave relationship here to be an extreme example of the more general employer/employee relationship, or any relationship where one person has the power to tell the other ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
9 votes
Accepted

What does "unsearchable" mean in "the unsearchable riches of Christ". Ephesians 3:8?

The word should be taken as a synonym for "infinite". The picture is that someone could go through them for ever without reaching the far end and exhausting the supply of things to be ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
8 votes

Why might Paul emphasize FOUR spatial dimensions when describing the love of Christ (Eph. 3:18)?

This is quintessential Hebrew idiom based on multiple hyperbole. Paul is trying to convey the matchless riches of God's love and grace and struggles to find words to express it. He uses three ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
8 votes

In Ephesians 1:7, whose blood, the Son’s or the Father’s?

Please read this as an addendum to the excellent answer of Stephen Disraeli (which I have already upvoted.) Eph 1:5-7 reads (with antecedents inserted) He [the Father] predestined us for adoption as ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
7 votes

How can someone be "filled with the Spirit" if the Spirit is a person? Ephesians 5:18

Here's the same issue with the temple: 27 “But will God indeed dwell on the earth? Behold, heaven and the highest heaven cannot contain you; how much less this house that I have built! 28 Yet have ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
  • 20.3k
7 votes
Accepted

What does "word of God" mean in Ephesians 6:17?

Key Element of the analogy To properly understand the analogy of the word of God as the sword of the Spirit it is helpful to understand what, within the analogy, the sword of the Spirit is meant to be ...
Austin's user avatar
  • 3,928
6 votes
Accepted

Ephesians 4:30 - What does Paul mean by "grieve" the Holy Spirit?

Ambrosiaster, a 4th century commentator whose identity is somewhat mysterious, was commenting on the Latin version and not the Greek version of the text, but I think his explanation is still relevant: ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
6 votes
Accepted

Does the Bible render the Holy Spirit as a person in Ephesians?

The participle translated by the NIV here as 'who' is the Greek word ὅ, which is extraordinarily common and possesses a wide variety of meanings in English. The word is most commonly rendered as '...
Steve can help's user avatar
  • 5,664
6 votes

Ephesians 6:1 - Are Adults Commanded to Obey Their Parents?

There are many things one can do with this passage. You are right in saying "τέκνα is not a term that is age limited." Neither is the English word "children." And yet the image ...
Rajesh's user avatar
  • 1,870
6 votes

Is Ephesians 6:5-9 inapplicable with modern Christians who don’t have a “slave”?

Some precepts apply only to an empirical historical reality, but they can have universal dimension also. For instance, in the Decalogue "do not covet for a donkey of your neighbor", is ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
5 votes

How can Ephesians 4:8 be a quote/translation of Psalms 68:18?

1. Question Restatement: In Eph. 4:8, Why does Paul translate Ps 68:18 ("to Take") - using the exact opposite term: ἔδωκεν ("to Give")? In Psalms 68:18, לָקַ֣חְתָּ is translated into Greek, as: ...
elika kohen's user avatar
  • 5,379
5 votes

In Ephesians 3:5, could «τοῖς ἁγίοις ἀποστόλοις αὐτοῦ καὶ προφήταις» be categorized as an instrumental dative?

There are two reasons why it is highly unlikely that the datives here are instrumental: 1) The verb αποκαλύπτω takes a direct and indirect object as you say, making a suitable nearby dative likely to ...
harlandski's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

How should Ephesians 3:15 be understood?

"Every" and not "the whole" is the correct translation here. The phrase in Greek, as you quoted, uses the word πᾶς and not ὅλος (as in ...the whole body shall be full of light - Matthew 6:22). So ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
5 votes
Accepted

Do Christians receive the Holy Spirit upon conversion or not (Ephesians 1:13 vs. Acts 8:14-17; 19:1-7)?

Apollos 24 Now a Jew named Apollos, a native of Alexandria, came to Ephesus. He was an eloquent man, competent in the Scriptures. 25 He had been instructed in the way of the Lord. And being fervent ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

Does the Holy Spirit have emotions?

And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost: [1 Thessalonians 1:6 KJV] The joy with which the followers received the word ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.2k
5 votes
Accepted

How can someone be "filled with the Spirit" if the Spirit is a person? Ephesians 5:18

Exactly the same question could be asked of other instances where we meet the same idea. Luke 1:17 - And he will go on before the Lord, in the spirit and power of Elijah, to turn the hearts of the ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes
Accepted

What is meant by "schemes of the devil" in Ephesians 6:11?

The operative word here is μεθοδεία (methodeia) from which come our English word "method". It is a rare NT word only occurring in Eph 4:14, 6:11. Eph 4:14 - Then we will no longer be ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
5 votes

What does "word of God" mean in Ephesians 6:17?

In the message regarding the armor of God, the sword is the only offensive weapon that is presented. Everything else is designed to defend & protect areas of vulnerability, such as: Helmet (...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
5 votes

By what logic is "in love" grouped with "speaking the truth" by commas? (Ephesians 4:15)

Because Greek is an inflected language, it is true that there are many circumstances wherein the word order does not matter in Greek but does matter in English. The Greek inflection enables us to ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

How do "hos" and "kathos" compare in Ephesians 5:1-2?

Kαθώς (kathōs) is a contraction of the words κατά (kata) and ὡς (hōs). Kατά means according to, as in Then he touched their eyes, saying, “According to your faith [κατὰ τὴν πίστιν] be it done to you”...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
4 votes

What does the phrase "children of wrath" mean in Ephesians 2:3?

Carson in his book Jesus the Son of God1, describes a translation issue that is probably at play here. We are usually not aware of it as modern translations mostly gloss over the issue. I'll ...
Jay's user avatar
  • 1,316
4 votes

To whom does the term "one God" refer in Paul?

One God The Shema as found in Deuteronomy is the primary text for "one God:" “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.[b] (Deuteronomy 6:4) [ESV] b. Or The LORD our God is one LORD; ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible