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9 votes
Accepted

Why does Genesis 3:14 say that the snake would eat dust?

Before answering this question, let me set out the literary structure of the surrounding passage of Gen 3:14 to show the ingenious design of this part of Gen 3: A: V8: - Adam and Eve act together (to ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Deuteronomy 28:48 mentions a "yoke of iron" when was this fulfilled?

Figurative Language and Parallelism The prophecy in Deuteronomy 28 contains both literal and figurative language to express the future experience of Israel. Taking a slightly expanded context, vv.47-...
ScottS's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Does Exodus 34:7 necessarily mean that God directly punishes the grandchildren?

The Biblehub Interlinear indicates that the verb behind 'visiting/punishing' is paqad Strong 6485 and is used in Exodus 34:7 in its Qal form whose primary meaning is given by BDB (again, on the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Could there be some deeper/Spiritual meaning why darkness was created ahead of light in Genesis 1:2?

Background The Genesis account of creation does not detail everything God created. For example, there is no mention of angels, cherubim, seraphim, or a heavenly Temple; yet there is no question these ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

Did Jesus curse his enemies?

There is a difference between: a curse that hopes for bad things upon one's enemies bluntly explaining the consequences (eternal destruction, etc) of sin and a sinner's choice of they reject Jesus. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Why did Elisha curse 42 boys?

I found the explanation from Daniel Hoffman useful. Let me copy and paste his full article below. The text has rich insight so it is best to keep it in full. The link of his original article in ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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3 votes

Why did Elisha curse 42 boys?

The best answer I have found for this is linked below. Why I like it—it looks to the historical Jewish teachings of this Jewish passage (I think we as Christians do a terrible job acknowledging that ...
Michael Brown's user avatar
3 votes

Why did Elisha curse 42 boys?

All these answers are good. I'd like to add another point: Calling him "bald-head". Scripture implies, especially when we read I Corinthians 11, that hair is indicative of authority. Notice this takes ...
Iconoclast's user avatar
2 votes

Why does Noah curse Canaan?

Whatever the act perpretated by Ham, whether merely seeing his father naked, or taking advantage of Noah's drunken stupor to homosexually rape him, in Genesis 9:24-25 Noah clearly regards it as worthy ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
2 votes

(Galatians 3:10-13) Understanding "a curse for us" phrase

I believe the phrase “being made a curse for us” is a direct reference to the “blessing and the curse” described in Deuteronomy 28. Here Moses is reminding Israel that they must do ‘everything” ...
alb's user avatar
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2 votes

In light of Proverbs 24:17 , how would we go about justifying or reasoning Psalm 54:5-7 claim of being satisfied with enemies' destruction?

The Bible bans the practice of triumphalism in places like Obad 1:12, Prov 24:17. This is further strengthened by other statements that say something like, "Vengeance is mine, I will repay, says ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes
Accepted

Do blessings and curses transcend the covenants?

In order to proceed, we need to define which covenant(s) we are discussing. In the OT, there are at least five covenants: Noahide covenant stated in Gen 8:20 – 9:17 Abrahamic covenant stated in Gen ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes
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Does 2 Samuel 12:9-11 prove that God will sometimes never stop His chastisements upon a Christian?

The simple answer is, "yes" as 2 Sam 12 shows. However, the same idea of God allowing circumstances to chasten us (at times) is explicitly taught in the NT: Rev 3:19 - Those whom I love I ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

What is the special significance of the curse imposed on the serpent in Gen 3:15?

Matthew Poole appears to address this question in his commentary on Gen 3:15 - I will put enmity between thee and the woman; and the man too, but the woman alone is mentioned, for the devil’s greater ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

In David's curse of Joab in 2 Samuel 3:29 what is intended by "takes hold of a distaff"?

It doesn't appear to be a euphemism. The word translated distaff here (Strong's Exhaustive Concordance) is from an unused root meaning to be round, hence a circuit, spindle or crutch. It appears 10 ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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2 votes

Could there be some deeper/Spiritual meaning why darkness was created ahead of light in Genesis 1:2?

The text does not say that darkness was created - darkness is, after all, the lack of any light, and has no concrete existence of its own. Rather, the earth was created in the darkness that is empty ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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2 votes

Why does Genesis 3:14 say that the snake would eat dust?

Neither snakes nor serpents eat dust, which means the verse is best understood figuratively. Eating dust here symbolizes being brought low. It begs the question as to whether the serpent itself was a ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

What is the special significance of the curse imposed on the serpent in Gen 3:15?

The significance of God's curse on the serpent is that the serpent's future doom is assured, whereas the triumph of the woman's seed was a fait accompli from eternity past. God's "Plan A" ...
rhetorician's user avatar
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1 vote

Do blessings and curses transcend the covenants?

A covenant that does not supersede an older covenant is not an entirely new covenant. Rather, it is merely an Amendment. Shall we then say that the Israelite Covenant still stands and what Jesus ...
Ruel G's user avatar
  • 11
1 vote

In light of Proverbs 24:17 , how would we go about justifying or reasoning Psalm 54:5-7 claim of being satisfied with enemies' destruction?

I think we need to expand the passages a bit and understand the type of literature we are reading in Psalms and in Proverbs. The different literary styles of the bible Proverbs is wisdom literature. ...
BPowell's user avatar
  • 31
1 vote

Who is Jesus speaking to in the first part of Matthew 17:17?

To understand the text it is necessary to know what Jesus's view about signs and wonders was. As far as He was concerned, He felt obliged to give bread to the children, so that they would be ...
Seeker's user avatar
  • 316
1 vote
Accepted

Who is Jesus speaking to in the first part of Matthew 17:17?

Who is Jesus speaking to in the first part of Matthew 17:17? Matthew 17:17 New English Translation (NET Bible) 17 Jesus answered, “You unbelieving and perverse generation! How much longer must I ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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1 vote

( Romans 12:14 "14 Bless those who persecute [d]you; bless and do Not curse.") can stand side-by-side withOut contradicting the imprecatory scripture

For answering this question one needs to first establish axiom on God. The axiom is that God is Creator of all humans and loves all humans, the bearers of His image and likeness and thus, He also ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
1 vote

Why did Elisha curse 42 boys?

Elisha cursed the boys because he felt they should show respect to him as God's prophet. In other words, he was angry. A more interesting question implied by the OP is whether his curse was justified. ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote
Accepted

Does "made a curse" in Gal 3:13 k.J.V mean "made cursed"?

to be made a curse = to be cursed. Christ is no longer hanging on a tree. He was buried then resurrected. Now He's God in His humanity. He was already God in man, but now His humanity is 'officially' ...
Walter S's user avatar
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1 vote

In David's curse of Joab in 2 Samuel 3:29 what is intended by "takes hold of a distaff"?

If you are looking for an interpretation that's loyal to the text and preserves the spindle translation as the true one (from your OP it is evident that you favor that one), then you have one in the ...
bach's user avatar
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