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18

I want to offer an alternate perspective, mostly because I think several faulty lines of reasoning have been proposed for why it is "unlikely" that πέτρα refers to Πέτρος. My response will be divided into three parts: Against objections Reasons in favor Other testimonies Let me start by acknowledging a strong parallel brought up by Dottard. I ...


12

There seems to have been a very clear understanding among the Church Fathers that Jesus was referring to Peter's confession of faith and not to the person of Peter himself here. John Chrysostom (d. 407), in his 52d Homily on the Gospel according to Matthew, wrote: What then saith Christ? “Thou art Simon, the son of Jonas; thou shalt be called Cephas. ...


10

In the Introduction to 1 John in the NIV Study Bible, Donald W. Burdick writes: Author: Unlike most NT letters, 1 John does not tell us who the author is. The earliest identification of him comes from the church fathers: Irenaeus (A.D. 140-203), Clement of Alexandria (A.D. 155-215), Tertullian (A.D. 150-220) and Origen (A.D. 185-253) all designated the ...


10

The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...


9

Let me quote my (overly) literal translation of Matt 16:16-19 - “Simon Peter answered, ‘You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God.’ And Jesus said to him, ‘Blessed are you, Simon bar Jona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. I also say to you that you are Peter [Petros (masc), a stone], and upon this ...


7

Here is the text of Matthew 16:18 set out in Greek of Nestle-Aland 27 and English of ESV (as above): κἀγὼ δέ σοι λέγω ὅτι σὺ εἶ Πέτρος, kagō de soi legō hoti su ei Petros And I tell you, you are Peter, καὶ ἐπὶ ταύτῃ τῇ πέτρᾳ οἰκοδομήσω μου τὴν ἐκκλησίαν kai epi tautē tē(i) petra(i) oikodomēsō mou tēn ekklēsian and on this rock I will build my ...


6

The antecedent of "this rock" has been debated for millennia. There appear to be 4 possible antecedents--let's look at the preceding verses: 16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. 17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto ...


5

In order to answer such a question, we must first put away our theological preferences, whether pre-, post-, or amillennial. Only then can we objectively consider the textual evidence: According to the NA-28 apparatus, the first half of the verse is missing in codex Sinaiticus, the byzantine manuscripts, and to a few much less significant manuscripts. ...


5

I don't think that Jesus is here talking about prayer or answers to prayer. In this section Jesus is making the point about his identification with the church in the context of church discipline. He is saying that the church has authority to enact discipline and it is, if you like 'backed up' by Christ himself as if he was enacting that discipline. He works ...


5

Matt 18:19, 20 cannot and should not be divorced from the previous verses because V18 begins with the word, Πάλιν (Palin) = "Again". So let me quote the context: V18 is essential to understand the the explicit connection with V19. V 18 says (NASB): Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you ...


5

The Greek text is not under question here. NA28 has: κἀγὼ δέ σοι λέγω ὅτι σὺ εἶ Πέτρος, καὶ ἐπὶ ταύτῃ τῇ πέτρᾳ οἰκοδομήσω μου τὴν ἐκκλησίαν καὶ πύλαι ᾅδου οὐ κατισχύσουσιν αὐτῆς. The LXX uses ἐκκλησία to translate the assembly of Israel. In some places in the Gospels, Jesus may have been referring to such. But in this case, it would be nonsense to refer ...


5

Peter said, 'Thou art the Christ, the Son of the Living God', Matthew 16:16, a revelation of whom Jesus truly was, God manifest in flesh, 1 Timothy 3:16 [TR]. Peter is blessed for this was a revelation from the Father, Matthew 16:17. Jesus returns to Peter, 'Thou art Peter'. Why say Peter's name ? Was it in doubt in any way ? Why emphasise the name of Peter ?...


5

The operative word in James 2:2 is indeed, συναγωγή (synagoge). However, this does not not necessarily imply that James is referring to Jewish synagogues. The word simply means "place of assembly", or "meeting", "gathering place" For example the following versions translate this word as "meeting" or "assembly&...


4

At least linguistically, the translators of the Septuagint understood the church to be a continuation of the Old Testament. The word "Church" used in Matthew 16:18 is ἐκκλησία. As it turns out this is used several times in the translation of the Old Testament. For example, Deuteronomy 23:2-4 list prohibitions on entering the "Assembly of the LORD" ...


4

I think the short answer to your question is that either it was written (a) to the greater Church in general and not any specific local Church; or (b) to Parthians (Persians), resident either in Asia Minor or in Parthia near Bagdad and Babylon. The letters of James, John, Peter, and Jude are known as the "Catholic" - or universal - Epistles, and are not ...


4

This is a great question especially in view of Heb 10:25 which says: [Do] not giving up meeting together, as some are in the habit of doing, but encouraging one another--and all the more as you see the Day approaching. This question can be rephrased as, Must meeting together be a physical meeting or can it be otherwise? The noun translated "meeting ...


3

There are many old testament references that State that there is no Rock other than out God. 2 Samuel 22:32 "For who is God, besides the LORD? And who is a rock, besides our God? Psalm 18:31 For who is God, but the LORD? And who is a rock, except our God Isaiah 44:8 "Do not tremble and do not be afraid; Have I not long since announced it to you and declared ...


3

The "ekklesia" question is historically, very contentions: Luther translated the word "Gemeinde" = community (never "kirke"), and many German translations had followed Possibly influenced by Luther (or vis versa) Tyndale translated this word, "congregation" which contributed (among other things) to his being burnt at ...


3

A Translation Bias With time and culture, the Christians have changed the identity of the Jewish religion to non-Jewish, due to antisemitic culture within the mainstream "Churches". The Church building is nothing but a replacement for the Synagogue. Synagogue more pertains to the place of ekklesia or assembly, thus a proper translation should use ...


3

Etymology of the word 'church' from Oxford English Dictionary (Note: Subscription required or a UK library card number.) Etymology: Cognate with Old Frisian tzerke , tzerk , tzierke , tzark , tziurke , kerke (West Frisian tsjerke ), Old Dutch kirika , kerk (only recorded in a place name and a derivative; Middle Dutch kirke , kerke , keerke , kerk , Dutch ...


2

In his commentary on 1 Timothy 2:12 Adam Clarke writes: Nor to usurp authority - A woman should attempt nothing, either in public or private, that belongs to man as his peculiar function. This was prohibited by the Roman laws: In multis juris nostri articulis deterior est conditio foeminarum quam masculorun,; l. 9, Pap. Lib. 31, Quaest. Foeminoe ...


2

Some scholars, such at Dominick Crossan and Marcus Borg suggest that 1 Cor. 14:33-36 is a later insertion, for if you remove this passage, the subject of prophecy in 14:26-33 picks up naturally at 14:37-40. Furthermore, the insertion is given as a separate paragraph in all Greek manuscripts. The silencing of women in church contradicts the general attitude ...


2

Jad, I think I am one of those who appeal to John 20 but not primarily for Pentecostal leanings, but rather to show that the disciples were already saved believers before the Day of Pentecost. A link between Matt. 18 & John 20 may exist, but only to the extent that Jesus was reiterating a principle established on at least two other occasions, namely ...


2

I can see where the interpretation you ask about is plausible, however the progression in that text, Paul's practices of church discipline, and the precursor of Old Testament corporate punishment indicate that this "church" is more representative of the body as a whole rather than a metonym. Jesus takes it from confronting with one person [v15] to ...


2

Colossians does place emphasis on sharing Paul's epistles between the Christian communities of Colossae and Loadicea, but there is good reason to believe that Colossians was always intended to be addressed to churches other than these. John Barclay says (Colossians and Philemon, page 22) Colossians is "routinely bracketed out as deutero-Pauline and that the ...


2

1 John 1,9 he states, Its an invitation to the sin denier/ unbeliever to admit his sins and get forgiven, now that is a false statement, No where in the NT does it say that a unbeliever must confess their sins, its a false statement, Peter replied, "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And ...


2

Paul's concern in 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not the prohibitions of the Torah but rather Roman laws governing public gatherings: In his commentary on 1 Timothy 2:12 Adam Clarke writes: Nor to usurp authority - A woman should attempt nothing, either in public or private, that belongs to man as his peculiar function. This was prohibited by the Roman laws: ...


2

I have read/heard/studied various commentaries on these passages, and two of the most common are the following (and I will just address the 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 passages): 1) The first view is that verses 34 and 35 are to be taken "in context" of what has already been spoken by Paul; in other words: the context here is "prophesying" (preaching) in the ...


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