There sure are some intriguing ideas in the answers.
Rather than get distracted, let's look at the immediate context for some direction.
God, having spoken long ago to our fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, 2 in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, and through whom He made the ages, 3 who,...
Note equal here is singular ἴσον, denoting a single way claiming God as Father made him equal with God. Jesus spoke of God as if God were his intimate birth father, not his great...great grandfather or origin.
If equal were in reference to his full divine nature, it would have been plural as in Phil. 2:6.
See also What is the significance of ἴσα in Phil. 2:...
Whether or not the Jews are correctly or incorrectly understanding Jesus is not really the issue. The issue is what was it that Jesus said that caused them to say He was claiming to be God or equal to God that so upset the Jews.
The following is what Jesus stated. You have at John 5:17 Jesus saying, "My Father is working until now, and I Myself am ...
We reconcile the two by trusting Jesus' words and the report and commentary that the Holy Spirit gives us through John.
It is not that claiming to be the "Son of God" in the way that humans typically used and understood the term, and as in often used and understood from scripture. For instance,
Now there was a day when the sons of God came to ...
The pertinent word here is ἴσος (hence the English isometric, isobar, isopleth, isometric, isomer, etc) which BDAG defines as:
pertaining to being equivalent in number, size, quality, equal
The word occurs eight times in the NT (Matt 20:12, Mark 14:45, 59, Luke 6:34, John 5:18, Acts 11:17, Phil 2:6, Rev 21;16) and NEVER means "identical", but ...
On the contrary, Jesus not only did not deny His equality with the Father, but affirmed it most clearly, for "I cannot do anything on My own" and adding to it that "what the Father does, also the Son does likewise", and still, for a further clarification adding that the Father has given to Him the works to finish-the very works that He ...
In the Gospel of John, Jesus denies equality with God again and again.
John 8:40 is a good example.
"But now you are trying to kill Me, a man who has told you the truth
that I heard from God."
Jesus clearly states he is a man who has heard from God. He is not claiming equality with God but he is claiming to be God's representative.
Let's turn ...
Answering from a Biblical Unitarian perspective.
The day in question is indicated in Luke 1:31-35.
"Behold, you will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to
give Him the name Jesus. 32 He will be great and will be called the
Son of the Most High. The Lord God will give Him the throne of His
father David, 33 and He will reign over the house of ...
Did Paul believe in the existence of an 'abyss' storing the
souls/spirits of those who have passed away?
As usual, this answer will break away from what's mainstream, but what else is new?
It's no question that the common understanding, even the Jewish one, of the term "Abyss" is that it refers to "the home of the dead and of evil spirits:&...
As with many of the questions that were asked of Him, Jesus didn't directly answer the question. We might say that Jesus answered the question they should have asked.
Rather than providing a discourse on equality, Jesus gives a sermon on identity.
The next 26 verses provide not a dissertation on the nature of Deity, but a description of Jesus' relationship ...
Look at what Jesus said that was taken as claiming equality with God:
But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.”
(John 5:17, ESV)
In 5:19 Jesus makes a very similar statement to what was taken as making himself equal with God:
So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, ...
If Jesus was trying to deny equality with God then He would have done it explicitly as was done in other places such as Acts 10:26, etc. Further, if Jesus is denying equality with the Father in John 5, then he is very confused:
V19 - For whatever the Father does, the Son also does. Jesus says He can do all things that the Father does (wow!!)
V21 - For ...
It is possible to understand Ps 2:7 in different ways:
A statement about David becoming the "Son of God" in the royal sense (we see this often such as 1 Sam 8:7, 8, 24:6, 2 Sam 19:21, 1 Chron 28:5, 2 Chron 9:8, 13:8, Ps 5:2, 44:4). That is the Davidic kings were to rule as deputies of the real king of Israel, God.
Recounting a past event about ...
The dialogue between the Jews and Jesus that starts in John 5 continues (with a few breaks) right through to John 10. The answer to the OP's question is found later in John 10:33 -
“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for
blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”
Thus, I fully agree that the well-versed ...
It is very tempting to start with the answer, the day, the only day that makes any sense in light of all the Scripture verses, is day 1
“I will tell of the decree: The Lord said to me, “You are my Son; today I have begotten you.”
Notice that the Son is retelling the decree which He witnessed the Father speaking to Him. This is a ...
Today” is considered by some scholars and commentators to be a reference to what is called “the eternal generation of the Son.” The assertion behind this opinion is that “Today I have begotten you,” does not reflect upon Jesus’ humanity but upon his eternal existence. Origen (184–253), believed that “today” refers to that timeless ever-present, eternal day ...
The first key to the answer is to note the Jews were incorrect in asserting Jesus was claiming equality at John 5:18. Jesus disabuses them of this notion immediately after.
"So Jesus replied, “Truly, truly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing
by Himself, unless He sees the Father doing it." (John 5:19)
Jesus is not equal to the Father, because the ...
16So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jewish leaders began to persecute him. 17In his defense Jesus said to them, “My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working.” 18For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, ...
The Spirit of God, or the Holy Spirit (Hebrew: Ruach Hakodesh), is the same as the spirit of Jesus. Jesus empowered and blessed the disciples with the Holy Spirit. One Spirit and mind of one God. Christ lives with us in the form or way of Spirit. He strengthens us. We don't make quite a differentiation among the three.
(John 20:22-23 NET2) And after he said ...
There are different senses in which a person can be “known”. I can know that you exist and I can know something of your theological beliefs due to what you post here, and your responses to me. But I do not know you in the biblical sense of God, Christ, and the Holy Spirit know-ing people. I have never met you, never even seen a photo of you, nor do I know ...
Did Paul believe in a place called "[the] abyss" that houses the [spirits] of the dead (Rom. 10:17)?
It seems very unlikely that anyone -- especially the apostles, were unfamiliar with the flames of Hades; this appears to be exactly what Romans 10:17 refers to:
Romans 10:17: “But the righteousness based on faith speaks as ...
In the exchange with Jesus, Luke records the words of the demons
“And they begged him not to command them to depart into the abyss.”
It’s the same Greek word αβυσσον
It is also described/mentioned in the book of Revelation. Did Paul believe in Biblical cosmology? That there was a deep abyss under the earth? Of course he did. He didn’t ...
A straightforward rendering of Paul's statement here is that he is making a reference to what the Jews called Sheol.
Usage of the Greek word ἄβυσσος (rendered in English as "abyss") includes:
the abyss, unfathomable depth, an especially Jewish conception, the
home of the dead and of evil spirits (see here)
Soldarnal offers an excellent ...
In what sense did Jesus descend/come from heaven?
As with many things about Jesus (and the bible in general), we must be certain to grasp what is literal and what is figurative.
Did he literally come from 'heaven' to earth to be born as a child? No.
First, we should clarify who Jesus is so that the following comments make sense.
Jesus is the human son born ...
Most definitely and unequivocally, Jesus says that He existed in Heaven and descended from there, without, though, leaving the Father, for it is said that while He has descended He simultaneously has remained with the Father in Heaven (John 3:13) ("the Son of the Man who is in Heaven"). It is eternal and changeless theological 'momentum' that God-...
The NT certainly asserts, using the precedents of the OT that Jesus existed before His incarnation.
We see this many times in the Bible, especially in the Gospel of John, such as:
John 1:1-3 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were made, and without Him ...
The Greek of John 16:28b is
πάλιν ἀφίημι [= I leave] τὸν κόσμον καὶ πορεύομαι [= I go]
πρὸς τὸν Πατέρα.
In this construction it is difficult to make πάλιν apply to "go" rather than "leave" because of two reasons:
proximity - "leave is MUCH closer
separation - καὶ [= and] separates the two phrases, "I leave the world" and ...
Passages about Jesus as God's right shows he is now in heaven, but does come from heaven and from the Father mean he was literally in heaven before he was born?
This Jesus God raised up, and of that we all are witnesses. 33 Being therefore exalted at the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he has poured out ...
Is Jesus implying that he already existed in heaven prior to his incarnation?
Yes, John declares his pre-existence in 1:18
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
How did Jesus reveal God?
By descending from heaven, Jesus took on human flesh. He descended ...
Here are the senses that the word translated abide is used in the New Testament. The English word say has much of the same senses. It can mean stay in place or stay at ones house. Used in John 15
Here are the senses of the word translated have in 1 John 5:12. The four occurrences in this verse are all present tense. "To have (a relationship)" ...
Let's see the context, just one verse earlier in Ephesian 3:13
I ask you, therefore, not to be discouraged because of my sufferings for you, which are your glory.
The word "you" refers to believers in Ephesus. Then Paul Prays for the Ephesians.
14 For this reason I kneel before the Father, 15 from whom every family in heaven and on earth derives ...
I find no biblical ground to conclude that this specific prayer contained unbelievers. Here are the reasons:
The letter to Ephesians is titled to 'the saints who are in Ephesus, and faithful in Christ Jesus'.
Ephesians 2:19-22 clearly shows that the recipients of the letter are gentile believers.
Let's look at the context of the verse you quoted, verse 16-...
Considering the Greek βλεπη is used and this could mean both to see with the physical eye and/or with the mind’s eye, as in to understand, perceive, discern, one can make several observations.
Firstly Jesus voluntarily annulled His divine attributes Phi2:7, so the only way to see the Father physically or in a vision would be to receive revelation through the ...
Short answer: When Jesus says, " the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise," He is basically just saying," I must be about My Father’s business” (Luke 2:49 KJV).
Long answer: "When reading this in 21st century English, it looks like monkey ...
I would translate Phil 4:13 as:
I have strength [for] all things in the One strengthening me.
Let us notice several things about this verse succinct (very Pauline) remark:
the name "Christ is absent but implied
the grammar demands that the "all things" here are those things that God requires Paul to do. That is, "God's biddings are ...
Philippians 4 and 2 Corinthians 11
In Philippians 4, Paul opens a line of reasoning in verses 4-7 that presents us with a formula for psychological soundness. He begins by linking one's potential for psychological soundness to the unseen.
“Rejoice in the Lord always; again, I will say, rejoice! Let your
gentle spirit be known to all men. The Lord is near. ...
First, what does it mean I can do all things? Usually, when this verse is quoted (often in an athletic context) the idea is that we can do whatever we set our minds to through this magical strength that Christ provides. This isn't what Paul is about here. Instead in the context of Philipians 4:11-13, his strength is his ability to face and be content in all ...
NASB Philippians 4:13
I can do all things through Him who strengthens me.
Article - Dative Masculine Singular
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.
The word "Christ" is not found in the best MSS. That's one answer.
The spiritual reality was described in John 5:17
In his defense Jesus said to them, "My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working."
The intimacy continues to verse 19:
So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the ...
I would say metaphorically since the language Jesus uses of the Trinity (Father, Son, Holy Spirit) elsewhere appears to be overtly metaphorical also. An example I think most relevant is when the Holy Spirit "receives" from the Son what it is that is to be revealed over time to the Church, which it "cannot now bear" (John 16:12). The only ...
This claim of Jesus confirmed the conviction of the Jewish religious leaders that Jesus was a blasphemer as claiming His divinity, for they plainly say "we do not want to kill you for good deeds, but because being a man you make yourself God" (John 10:33), and "God" here does not mean a) any created being, even as elevated as angel or ...
Who is speaking to the Philadelphian congregation in Revelation 3:12?
The one speaking in these verses to both the congregations in Sardis and Philadelphia is "He who has the seven Spirits of God" and "holds the key of David".
Rev. 13:1, 7 NKJV
1"And to the angel of the church in Sardis write, 'These things says He who has the ...
That Jesus is the speaker (through His chosen representative) in the seven letters in Revelation is evident by comparing the letters. Note especially:
The greeting to the church in Smyrna:
These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is
alive; (Revelation 2:8)
The greeting to the church in Thyatira:
These things saith the Son of God, (...
Jesus was a human being possessed by God, as Proverbs 8:22 foretold.
"The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works
of old." (Proverbs 8:22)
And Jesus gave a most important truth regarding God's nature to the woman at the well, as recorded in John 4:24.
"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in ...
What is 'That' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1
Let's look at the literal translation of 1 John 1:1.... (bolding mine)
"Which was from beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen to the eyes of us, which we viewed and the hands of us felt, about the word of the life."
With a view to emphasizing the 'Which' (...
Jesus, as a man, was not God (though God "possessed" him--see Prov. 8:22 and John 14:10-11). God is all-knowing, immortal, and cannot be tempted with evil (see James 1:13). But Jesus was both tempted (see Matthew 4 & Luke 4) and died. Numbers 23:19 tells us that God is not a man--yet Jesus was a man. Therefore, as man, Jesus cannot have ...
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made manifest, and we have seen it, and testify to it and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was made manifest to us ESV 1 John 1:1-2
Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?
14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.
No, Rev 3:14 does not say this. Interpreting it that way isn't conclusive.
The translation of 'arche' as (beginning, first or ruler) - 'ruler'...
The answer to the OP's question is at the other end of the same sentence which begins in 1 John 1:1 and continues (in the Greek) until the end of V3. The "that" is actually identified as:
"the Word of life" (v1)
"life eternal" (V2)
This is consistent with other writings of John where he says:
John 1:4 - In Him was life, and ...
την ζωην .. την αιωνιον .. ητις ην .. προς τον πατερα [1 John 1:2 TR - undisputed]
the life .. the eternal .. which was .. with the father [Literal]
'The life the eternal which was with the Father', is that which is revealed. Manifested : audible, visible and handleable. If eternal, then Deity. If with the Father eternally, then Son.
The eternal Son of ...