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I’m quite surprised that Austin's interpretation of John 10 is getting so much praise here in the forum. I for one find such an interpretation quite problematic, for which just one of those reasons GratefulDisciple briefly touches on: To interpret John 10:34-36 (cf. Ps. 82:6) in such a way, dethrones Jesus from that lofty position — where He dwells on high (...


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Is Paul suggesting in Eph. 4:6 that Jesus and the Holy Spirit are not God? In Eph. 4:6 Paul writes, "one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all". NKJV Paul is not suggesting but is saying like in all oF his writings that the father is above all, and that He is the Head of Christ. In context Vs 4-5 Paul says &...


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It is unfortunate that you only extracted a few words at the end of a sentence that starts in verse 4. To give a hermeneutical answer, the entire sentence must be considered. This, then, becomes the scripture text in question: "There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling: one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one ...


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NKJV Eph. 4:6 Paul writes, one God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. Is Paul suggesting in Eph. 4:6 that Jesus and the Holy Spirit are not God? No, the verse does not mention Jesus or the Holy Spirit. Since God, the Father, is above all, how can Jesus and the Holy Spirit be equal to Him or even be God at all? I don't ...


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If we take John 1:14 to mean that Jesus was God incarnate, then he was not the second Adam; That makes his death and resurrection a farce. If Jesus had incarnated, God does not need to transfer his life in to Mary’s womb for Jesus to be born. He could have materialized to a mature corporeal body just as the two angels that saved Lot in Sodom and Gomorrah ...


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How did Moses see the reproach of Christ, according to Hebrew 11:26? Moses foretold that a greater prophet like him was coming; Deuteronomy 18:15-19 NASB 15 “The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you, from your countrymen; to him you shall listen. 16 This is in accordance with everything that you asked of the Lord your God at ...


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Moses obviously did not see the reproach of Christ since he preceded the arrival of the Messiah by about 1500 years. Even if Moses did interact with the Son of God, with or without awareness of who he was, there would have been no reproach to see. There is also no evidence in the Torah, that I can think of, that Moses understood what would happen to the ...


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Based on Torah alone, the only “Messiah” | Ha-Mashiach הַמָּשִׁ֛יחַ ever mentioned by Moses in Leviticus 4 was a potential High Priest (Kohen Gadol) who atones for unintentional sins. We learn the future restoration of Torah-observant Israelites would come from YHVH not an anointed High Priest, in Deuteronomy 30:1-13. Moshe specifically mentioned in ...


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Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event? Joh 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. Php 2:5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal ...


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John describes an "event"; Philippians describes a "concept" Back to Hermeneutics, the Gospels are accounts of events. The Epistles are letters with explanation, correspondence, reproof, encouragement, instruction, et cetera. Opinion from experience: Is there an overlap of the topic in these passages? Many systematic theologians seem to ...


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When it comes to the status of Jesus, we have three possible (traditional) results: Jesus is merely human and was never God and still is not God. This cannot be true because the NT so often calls Jesus "God" in the fullest sense, Matt 1:23, John 1:1, 20:28, Phil 2:5-8, 1 Tim 3:16, Col 2:9, Titus 2:13, 2 Peter 1:1, Heb 1:8, 9, etc. Jesus was a a ...


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Jesus referred to the Father as his God. Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. (John 20:17, KJV) The Bible also indicates that God is greater than Christ. Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and ...


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You are right that there are similarities between the two passages in that both reference the time in history when the Word who became flesh dwelt among us on earth. But the focus of each text is very different. John focuses on the glory Jesus had as a man. Paul focuses on the shame and death Jesus experienced as the Son of God. This is pretty intuitive ...


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Philippians 2:5-6: John 1:1 form of God forms an inclusio with glory of God in the Christ-poem (vv. 6, 11). (2:6) Form of God (2:11) Glory of God The Greek word ''morphe'' means “form, outward appearance, shape.” (BDAG, p. 659) The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" ...


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Michael Heiser himself answered your question in a paper he read at the 2012 regional meeting of the Society of Biblical Literature: Jesus' Quotation of Psalm 82:6 in John 10:34: A Different View of John's Theological Strategy (source: supplementary material for Chapter 4 of his Unseen Realm book, content discussion #2). This answer is based on his paper. ...


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Yes, they do in general terms, for both texts speak about the one who had been of the same level as and equal to God having been incarnated/become human. That this is the same thing, is evident, for the Biblical view is not circular so as to allow such an event as incarnation of God to have been made and then abolished by God infinite times, which would ...


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Was Christ referring to a particular sin in Matthew 7:3? No, Jesus was not referring to any particular sin, he was pointing to our ability to judge our brothers properly. We are all imperfect, and should not overreact, to rush and help a brother to remove a minor flaw a "speck" from his figurative spiritual vision so that it will help him ...


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Sin? Jesus wasn’t talking about ‘sin’. He was talking about Judging - judging yourself. And that certainly is not (a) sin. The context is clear. We see it in the previous verse. MAT 7:1 Do not judge, or you too will be judged. 2 For in the same way you judge others, you will be judged, and with the measure you use, it will be measured to you. I appreciate ...


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Yes, it is a particular sin. The warning here is for hypocrisy, which God takes a hard stance on. Proverbs 11:1 (KJV): A false balance is abomination to the Lord: but a just weight is his delight. Luke 12:1 In the mean time, when there were gathered together an innumerable multitude of people, insomuch that they trode one upon another, he began to say ...


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Christ was Speaking about, The passing of Judgment And with Christs Words we see the emphasis of Maturity as a a requirement for Sound Judgement. This the Apostle Paul expounds more here. Gal 6:1 BSB Brothers, if someone is caught in a trespass, you who are spiritual should restore him with a spirit of gentleness. But watch yourself, or you also may be ...


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Matthew 7: 3 Why do you see the speck that is in your brother's eye, but do not notice the log that is in your own eye? 4 Or how can you say to your brother, ‘Let me take the speck out of your eye,’ when there is the log in your own eye? In the above text was Christ warning one never to try rebuke a brother whilst doing the same particular sin or just any ...


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Jesus' two most common titles in the NT are: The Son of Man, Matt 11:19, 24:30, Mark 14:21, Luke 9:26, etc The Son of God, The Son of Man The title "The Son of Man" serves several functions - it is an allusion to Jesus full humanity (and ultimately mortality) as per the Hebrew idiom in places like Eze 21:19, 28:2, 33:2, 12, 37:16, 43:7, etc It ...


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OP, you asked: But, whereas Adam was the Father of all mankind, why then is Jesus never called our Father? Why do the Scriptures consistently refer to him as "the Son"? First, God is the “father” of all by virtue of the fact that he is the Creator of the human family. Humanity was fashioned in his very image (Genesis 1:26-27) Do we not all have ...


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It was the Jewish religious leaders who falsly claimed he said something he didn't say.


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What, then, is the significance of the "Second Adam" being "the Son of Man" not "Father of Man"? The topic "Son of Man" in the Insight of the Scriptures brings out how this applies to Jesus Christi: Christ Jesus, “the Son of Man.” In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case ...


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According to Isaiah 9:6, one of the titles of the Messiah (the Christ) is "Everlasting Father". He is also called "the Mighty God" as is Yahweh in Isaiah 10:21. Herein lies the significance of the last Adam (not 'the second Adam' as you state). Herein lies the uncrossable chasm between the first man Adam being created by God out of dust, ...


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Genesis 3: 20 Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living. Eve is called the mother of all the living but Adam is never called the Father of all mankind in the Bible. OP: Adam was not a son, but the father of all mankind: In fact, Adam is called the son of God in Luke 3: 38 the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of ...


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First-born – πρωτότοκον – implies that others are to follow. The significance of “firstborn” has its roots in the Old Testament. Being the firstborn son carried prestige, honor, privilege, blessing, authority, preeminence, and double portion inheritance. Being the firstborn was also a matter of consecration to God, Exodus 13:3,11-16. “First-born” defines the ...


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Just mind the fact that the Lord clearly differentiates and disentangles Himself from those "gods", for He says that they are not gods per se (which would be impossible in the context of the Hebrew monotheism and would amount to a polytheist idolatry), but through receiving divine word. Thus, the word of God is their deifier or god-maker. But the ...


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First of all I am well familiar with Michael Heisner's position regarding Psalm 82:6 and I disagree with his take. As a side note I do agree with his paper on "Who is the angel of the Lord in the Old Testament." Now, at John 10:30, it literally says, "I and the Father, We are one." How are they one? It goes without saying they are one in ...


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OP: The phrase "Son of God" (Υἱὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ) presumably corresponds to "children of the most high" (עֶלְי֣וֹן וּבְנֵ֖י) in Psalm 82. But then what's Jesus' point? To avoid an assault at this point, Jesus was trying to soften his position from claiming to be God to claiming to be a son of God. If he's saying it's not blasphemous for him ...


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There is context to this verse in question Pay close attention to when they interrupt Jesus to determine what they were offended by and what didn’t offend them “I and the Father are one.” John‬ ‭10:30 Jesus says that He and the Father are one, obviously not numerically one, He just distinguished Himself from the Father, that makes two persons. He doesn’t ...


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Does the Tanakh claim Elohim YHVH has a supernatural anointed son who is both God over all (Romans 9:5) & has a Father in heaven (Matthew 6:9)? [Isaiah 44:6] So said YHVH, ( כֹּֽה־אָמַ֨ר יְהֹוָ֧ה ) the King of Yisrael ( מֶֽלֶךְ־יִשְׂרָאֵ֛ל ) and his-Redeemer ( וְגֹֽאֲל֖וֹ ) Notice : YHVH is declaring Himself only as both King & Redeemer of Yisrael....


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I think Austin gives a good response. I would add that the people understood Jesus was not making himself out to be the Father(the only true God) or they would not have put their faith in him after his teaching. The whole point of the "ye are gods" argument was to show that Jesus was divine but not in a way that made him equal to the Father. The ...


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Jesus was arguing that God the Father had other children who were gods (Psalm 82:6 You are gods and children of the Most High) but that he, Jesus, was the unique divine Son so that he was not blaspheming but speaking of the truth: John 10:33, 10:36 forms a chiastic structure (A-B-B-A): For blasphemy, because you, being a man, are making yourself God (v. 33)...


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Notice Jesus' use of his accusers' interpretation of Psalm 82:6 against them. "I said, Ye are gods, And all of you sons of the Most High" The judges and those serving as representatives of Jehovah/Yahweh are called gods. By his accusers' designation of "gods" in Psalm 82:6, he repudiates their charge of blasphemy. Jesus testified that ...


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What is Jesus' argument in John 10:34-36? John 10:33-36 33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself [a] God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ​‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture ...


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The Greek word protokos (Strong's 4416) conveys the meaning of first-begotten (from the root Strong's 4413) foremost in time or place, before, beginning. So in Col. 1:15, The Word (Jesus) is being identified as the first, the initial creation of God. The beginning of his creative acts. This is clear by the words, firstborn of every creature KJ, creation AS. ...


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The concept of ‘firstborn’ is a crucial one. And an understanding of this concept is important. You are asking about a natural aspect of ‘firstborn’, but what’s needed is the conceptual understanding. Biblically, the firstborn is not so much a chronological term - although it does include this, rather it is a spiritual feature. Namely, that whatever is first,...


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Can "firstborn" really have nothing to do with chronology? Answer: It depends. First, we must understand that, outside of Christ, we are all spiritually dead. This is a very interesting question because, as noted by other contributors (quite extensively), the term "firstborn" represents many, varied aspects in the Old Testament. However, ...


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I assume the OP is referring to the Greek word πρωτότοκος (prototokos) which, according to BDAG has the following meanings: literally, pertaining to birth order, firstborn Gen 4:4 (LXX) - while Abel brought the best portions of the firstborn of his flock. And the LORD looked with favor on Abel and his offering, Gen 25:25 (LXX) - And the firstborn came out ...


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Jeremiah 31:9 They shall come with weeping, And with supplications I will lead them. I will cause them to walk by the rivers of waters, In a straight way in which they shall not stumble; For I am a Father to Israel, And Ephraim is My firstborn


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As revealed in the comments below your question, you seem to have a mistaken impression of "θεος". This word is simply a countable noun that can be used as a title just like the word "king". Just like the king of Israel could be called "the king" by the Israelites, without implying that he is "the one true king" (the ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? By the wording of the question, the OP is of the assumption that John 1:1c's Greek word ordering in English is:- ...and the Word was God... When in actual fact the word order is:- ...and God was the Word... One only has to look at the ...


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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence? No. If anything, without a pre-supposed idea that it might, it rather says the opposite. Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2By this you know the ...


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Yes, Jesus is Jehovah/Yahweh. Rom. 10:9-13: Note the repeated "for," which links these verses closely together. The "Lord" of 10:13 must be the "Lord" of 10:9, 12. Phil. 2:9-11. In context, the "name that is above every name" is "Lord" (vs. 11), i.e., Jehovah. Heb. 1:10: Here God the Father addresses the Son ...


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Regardless of the potential for making an invalid argument in the reasoning, if A=B and A=C, then B=C, the use of ὁ λόγος, the Word, appears purposeful to lead the reader to understand the author has reached the conclusion, the Word was both God and Jesus. Complex Premises In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He ...


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If John believed that Jesus is the Creator God like what others infer from reading John 1:1-3 then that belief is not consistent with what John says in John 20:33 which says, but these are written, that ye may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye may have life in his name. John says Jesus in the Christ, the Son of God. Let ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? Traditional theology presents this proposal as fact. If we read the bible carefully, we find it does not work. Fortunately, the logic and clarity of the scriptures need no additional imagination and we can show this premise to be false from the bible without making anything ...


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Even a pagan centurion acknowledges that Jesus Christ is master of all heavenly powers, comparing His authority to those powers to his own authority over his regiment of soldiers (Matthew 8:9). And if He is not, eternally with the Father, the Master of all spiritual creatures, then how does He give power out of His own sovereign authority ("I give you ...


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