18

I want to offer an alternate perspective, mostly because I think several faulty lines of reasoning have been proposed for why it is "unlikely" that πέτρα refers to Πέτρος. My response will be divided into three parts: Against objections Reasons in favor Other testimonies Let me start by acknowledging a strong parallel brought up by Dottard. I ...


10

Scholarly opinion is that the additional sentence in the Latin translation of 2 Sam 1:26 (Sicut mater unicum amat filium suum, ita ego te diligebam) is a mediaeval interpolation; that is to say: it was added by a mediaeval copyist and was not in Jerome's original text. The purpose of the interpolation is obviously to avoid any possibly homoerotic reading of ...


9

Let me quote my (overly) literal translation of Matt 16:16-19 - “Simon Peter answered, ‘You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God.’ And Jesus said to him, ‘Blessed are you, Simon bar Jona, because flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven. I also say to you that you are Peter [Petros (masc), a stone], and upon this ...


8

I don't know the method that Wayne Grudem used. On possible method is Levenshtein Distance, which measures the number of insertions, deletions, and subsitutions needed to convert one text to another. In order to test the method and compare it with the 92% found in the chart, I ran the first chapter of Genesis (without verse numbers) through an online ...


8

The "two" in some translations is an interpretative addition. It does not exist in the Hebrew of Gen 18:22, which is simply הָֽאֲנָשִׁ֔ים ("the men"). The word "two" is added in those translations for "clarity" (which clarity can inadvertently create confusion, such as evidenced in your question). The idea is added because it is understood by many ...


7

I expect this is The Five Gospels: What Did Jesus Really Say? The Search for the Authentic Words of Jesus, a product of the "Jesus Seminar". You can see more about this "version" on Michael Marlowe's "Bible Research" website. This is what the Lord's Prayer (from Matthew 6:7-15) looks like (also the example chosen by Marlowe in his discussion): One other ...


7

I'm not sure why you contrast Hebrew and Jewish versification; they are one and the same. In Hebrew/Jewish Bibles, Genesis 31:54 is "ויזבח יעקב זבח בהר ויקרא לאחיו לאכל לחם ויאכלו לחם וילינו בהר". In the translation of the NRSV, this is rendered: "and Jacob offered a sacrifice on the height and called his kinsfolk to eat bread; and they ate bread and tarried ...


7

The question is predicated on the implicit assumption that Gen 42:8-16 is a complete record of the conversation between Joseph and the 10 brothers. The above assumption is clearly untrue for two reasons: As evidenced by the record in Gen 43:7, 27, and The very common Bible practice of providing a shortened summary of events for the sake of brevity, ...


6

In the MT there is a closed parsha break between the verses that are numbered in Christian editions as Micah 5:1 and 5:2. The Jews adopted the Christian chapter breaks in the printed editions of the MT except when the Christian chapter breaks split a parsha within three verses of the beginning or end of a parsha, in which case the printed MT editions move ...


6

This has been called "The Most Obscure Verse in Proverbs". Textual and/or translational uncertainties involve nearly every word in the verse1 and they are to some extent inseparable if we want to end up with a coherent proverb. However, the OP has specifically asked about the translation "archer", so I'll focus on that and only briefly mention some of the ...


6

From the NET footnotes: 55 tc A few MSS (𝔓115 C, along with a few MSS known to Irenaeus {and two minuscule MSS, 5 and 11, no longer extant}), read 616 here, and several other witnesses have other variations. Irenaeus’ mention of MSS that have 616 is balanced by his rejection of such witnesses in this case. As intriguing as the reading 616 is (since the ...


5

The number "666" or "616" is taken from the passage in Rev. 13:18, Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six. and has been arguably the most contested verse of the New Testament. The source of the problem is whether it is to be ...


5

The antecedent of "this rock" has been debated for millennia. There appear to be 4 possible antecedents--let's look at the preceding verses: 16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God. 17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto ...


4

https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-difference-between-version-and-translation The typical dichotomy that is debated in Translation Studies and Comparative Literature is between translation and adaptation. The presumed goal of a “perfect translation” (which can never exist) is to render a text in one language into a precise and accurate equivalent ...


4

Your question cannot be answered from the biblical verses alone, as the nature of this garment is not specified, so we must turn to extra-biblical sources. We know that all Egyptian men (besides for the king and his household) did not wear any clothing besides for a skirt, its length depending on the fashion of the specific period. See image below. This was ...


4

Peter said, 'Thou art the Christ, the Son of the Living God', Matthew 16:16, a revelation of whom Jesus truly was, God manifest in flesh, 1 Timothy 3:16 [TR]. Peter is blessed for this was a revelation from the Father, Matthew 16:17. Jesus returns to Peter, 'Thou art Peter'. Why say Peter's name ? Was it in doubt in any way ? Why emphasise the name of Peter ?...


3

In answer to "How many Bibles ?" before 1611, I cannot say exactly but Textus Receptus Bibles shows, on a single page, the English bibles commonly used from 1175 (the famous Wessex Gospels - not a full bible, but the most ancient known scripture in English) through The Wycliffe in 1382, which was translated from the Latin Vulgate, then Tyndale 1534, from the ...


3

I have long argued that all of the "Bibles" that claim to be "translations of the Bible" are actually "versions": version noun ver·​sion | \ˈvər-zhən, -shən\ Definition of version 1a : an account or description from a particular point of view especially as contrasted with another account b : an adaptation of a literary work the movie version ...


3

The LXX transliterates the Hebrew עִמָּנוּ אֵל in Isaiah 7:14 into Greek as Εμμανουηλ, but in Isaiah 8:8, it translates it as μεθ᾽ ἡμῶν ὁ θεός (“God [is] with us”). The Greek word Εμμανουηλ would be transliterated into English as “Emmanuel.”


3

The King James Bible or "Authorised Version" was first published in 1611. Translation began in 1604. Your observation about Psalm 46 appears in the book "The Shakespeare Code" by Virginia M Andrews , published in 2006. The author states that Shakespeare was part of the translation committee for KJB , and left clues of this; However she also states ...


3

All the differences between the Hebrew/Aramaic Old Testament and the LXX are in a helpful pdf (of Appendix E from SBL's Handbook of Style) which a person named Denise has posted on this page: http://community.logos.com/forums/p/67596/470753.aspx


3

The only evidence whether Matthew wrote in Hebrew first is very controversial, it is the fragment of the second century author named Papias of Hierapolis. There are no extant copies of the work in question, and that fragment is only preserved in the writings of Eusebius from the fourth century. Here is what Eusebius states (in the English Translation): 16 ...


2

The Bible does not explicitly say "two men" at Gen. 18:22, simply saying "the men" (האנשים). The translators, like the rabbis, infer that two men were there because of the transition at Gen. 19:1 ("And the two angels came to Sodom..."). Rashi, citing the Jewish tradition recorded in the Babylonian Talmud at Bava Metzia 86b) reflects that there were three ...


2

In Aramaic of Peshitta this word for winter is ܒܣܬܘܐ and it can also (apart from winter) mean tempest, foul weather, stormy weather (according to Lexicon to the Syriac New Testament by William Jennings and J. Payne Smith's A Compendious Syriac Dictionary). You could think about interpreting Matthew 24:20 as referring to a stormy weather.


2

Winter refers to what climate According to ISBE, Winter is the "rainy season." The rainy season ushers in a marked change in temperature from highs during the summer ranging from 85°F to triple digits. The "winter" months have both hard frosts and snow each year. Apparently the biblical writers were not focused as much on "seasons" as they were on times ...


2

This is a good question, GerCas, because in Greek times, people often used "to fall asleep" as a metaphor or euphemism for "to die," which we never do today. So it raises the question, "When did a Greek author mean which?" (Even the disciples were confused; see below.) Although your root question can be answered from the context, to address your first ...


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