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11

Wallace offers a very good explanation of the use of the term in the original language. It may help to understand exactly what is meant by the term εἰς τὸ ὄνομα - into the name of. I am not going to try to quote Wallace. I will just give the sense of his explanation. In the classical style of the first century language, the phrase "εἰς τὸ ὄνομα" - "into ...


9

Yes, Baptism is well attested in Jewish sources dating from both before and after Christ. These are both for mainstream Judaism and sectarian. From before Jesus, one finds clear references to baptism in the Dead Sea Scrolls. See for example, 1QS (The Community Rule) and 4Q274-276 (The Purity Texts). From sources dating after Jesus (but portraying ...


9

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


8

What does the text say? This verse is fairly clear: baptism now saves you. However, there are two things worth noting: For the early church, faith and baptism were never intentionally separated. Occasionally there was a small gap between the two, but generally they were always held together. And so when we try and interpret these sorts of verses we have to ...


7

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


6

The word baptise, βαπτιζω, baptiso Strong 907 may be, as it were, metaphorical as when Jesus says ... can ye ... be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with ? [KJV] Mark 10:38. Or when John says : One mightier than I cometh ; he shall baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire [KJV] Luke 3:16. Or the word may be used, specifically (I ...


5

This is going to sound a little esoteric, but my belief is that He was doing things backwards compared to the way we do them to symbolize His coming to us. The way we come to God, we first come to the faith, and then accept His sacrifice. Afterwards we get baptized, and then the Holy Spirit tabernacles with us. I'm using this language for a reason. It's the ...


4

I have found it quite difficult to find any commentaries, ancient or modern, that state that the "us" is not Jesus and John the Baptist. Your question however has challenged me to look outside my orthodoxy, and so I present two interpretations: 1. Jesus was referring to himself and John the Baptist First, Jesus himself had to be baptised, and he was aware ...


4

Looking through the answers posted so far, one view seems to be missing, which happens to be my view. Baptism in 1 Corinthians Additionally, the context of 1 Corinthians shows that water baptism had a prominent place of discussion at the start of the epistle, as Paul is thankful that baptism did not become a means of dividing into groups (1 Cor 1:13-17) like ...


4

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ "...


4

Acts 22:16: ἀναστὰς βάπτισαι καὶ ἀπόλουσαι τὰς ἁμαρτίας σου, ἐπικαλεσάμενος τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. (NA28) Rising, be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name. (mine) We have four verbs:1 ἀναστὰς = participle from ἀνίστημι (to rise) βάπτισαι = imperative from βαπτίζω (to baptize) ἀπόλουσαι = imperative from ἀπολούω (to wash) ...


4

The re-baptism of the eleven disciples from Ephesus was significant, as it points out the difference between the baptism of John and the baptism required after Christ's sacrifice on the cross. John's baptism was the one which was transitional, calling the people to repentance before the old covenant had been nailed to the cross (Matt. 3:2). When Peter ...


4

In Acts 10:44 to 48 it is made clear that first, those who heard the words of the apostle Peter, received the Holy Spirit. That being evident, it is then that Peter says : Can any man forbid water that these should not be baptized which have received the Holy Spirit as we ? Acts 10:47. The new birth is not a matter of a ritual immersion. The immersion is ...


4

Not exactly. The better translation is in Young's: "20 who sometime disbelieved, when once the long-suffering of God did wait, in days of Noah -- an ark being preparing -- in which few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water; 21 also to which an antitype doth now save us -- baptism, (not a putting away of the filth of flesh, but the question ...


3

John says in his first letter, in verses 7 and 8, "For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement." It is obvious that we are saved by the blood of Jesus Christ, in that our sins are fully payed for by the act of His death, and there no longer stands any accusation or record of wrong against us (...


3

There is no mention made in the New Testament, but in the Old. I suppose that they weren't ever really water baptized for the dead, but put themselves through various forms of penance (e.g. fasting; cf. Mt 17:21) or prayer for them. This is because 'baptism' was used as a term for a suffering or afflication—a "cup" of suffering (Lk 12:50; Mk 10:38; ...


3

The context of this verse is Paul's argument with some of the Corinthians regarding the nature of the resurrection of the dead. Certain Corinthians believed that Christ had, in fact, been resurrected from the dead, but they did not believe in the general resurrection of the dead for all (Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some ...


3

Please pardon a bit of a rant. And please consider what I write because it is the result of a lot of thought over a period of more than 50 years in ministry. All aspects of Acts 22:16 are grammatically "linked" (the term used in the original question) and are not to be separated. However, they are - only - grammatically linked. The internal logical, ...


3

I would just leave a comment, but I don't have enough reputation for that yet... In my understanding, there are some differences between John baptism and Jesus (in water). John was baptizing people who repent, Jesus, however, added some "specifications" to how people should be baptized (John obviously didn't follow, since he was already dead when Jesus has ...


3

'I came not for x but for y' doesn't exclude the performing of x, it only means that isn't the chief purpose (this is true even when x always accompanies y), or in this case chief calling or mission. This is more or less proven to be the contextual meaning by the next clause: "not in wisdom of word, [but in simplicity,] lest the gospel of Christ be brought ...


3

The word "baptize" or "baptized" is an Anglicized version of the Greek "baptizo", and is transliterated instead of being translated. The practice of immersion in water existed for centuries before it began to be altered as early as the 4th century AD, and being more commonly replaced by sprinkling in the 7th century AD. It is said that Eusebius “baptized” ...


3

The Greek word 'didachen' (from didache) can be translated as "doctrine" (KJV) or "instruction" (NIV, NASB). In this current passage, the word "doctrine" should not be read as a formalized doctrine as we know them today. Many modern versions (NIV, ESV, NASB) translate 909. baptismos as "washings" or "cleansing rites." This seems to indicate that the author ...


3

I certainly don't claim any of these thoughts are original to me, but I see a comparable connection. Jesus often used metaphors that were familiar to people to illustrate a point. Physical birth involves: Water (as noted in the OP) Spirit (see Genesis 2:7) Blood (I didn't really appreciate this until my the birth of my children) Spiritual rebirth involves: ...


3

How did John the Baptist proclaim Jesus' deity before the Holy Spirit descended on him? Answer: This appears to be a misreading of the text. Suppose we enumerate what we are told in John's Gospel. Item # Passage / Commentary Verse(s) 1. "The next day [John] saw Jesus coming to him and said, 'Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!'...


2

In ancient times the Jews despised the Babylonians because they did not wash their dead. The Jews washed their dead that they should be in the state that they were in when they entered the world (washed with water). It isn't Christian baptism (because there is no such thing) but rather for purification, good form and to prepare them for the afterlife. The ...


2

In 1 Peter 3:21, the Greek word ἀντίτυπον ( antitypon) reveals that the water that saved the eight souls in the Great Deluge is an antitype of the water baptism that saves. This means that both the eight and all Christians received the same sort of salvation (rescue)away from the evil world not from any kind of sin or sins. The immediate context shows that ...


2

There are several reasons why Jesus was baptized. I will explain two reasons which will include Jesus' answer to John as to what " to fulfill all righteousness means" (Matt 3:15). First, it was Christ's public anointing as King. John the Baptist (JTB) came in the spirit of Elijah, but it's hard to miss the similarities of his and Samuel's ministry. Author A....


2

I have read some authors state that Apollos was not yet saved; however, Luke does not record anyone telling him to be rebaptized even when the way of God is explained to him better (vs. 26). If that had happened, Luke would have recorded it as he did in Acts 19. Combine that with the glowing description of Apollos just before, and Apollos' salvation seems ...


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