13

There are several matters here that are crucial - First, 1 John 1:8 should never be read without also reading 1 John 1:10 - 8 If we say we have no sin [noun], we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. ... 10 If we say we have not sinned [verb], we make Him out to be a liar, and His word is not in us. Thus we are all sinners both because of what we ...


9

The seeming contradiction is from not paying careful attention to the verb tenses; the continuous action of the present tense in particular. 1 John 1:8-10 isn't so much of an issue in an English translation. The issue is understanding 1 John 3:9 Doeth no sin [KJV] (ἁμαρτιαν οὐ ποιει [hamartian ou poiei]). Linear present active indicative as in verse 4 like ...


8

The New American Bible, in note 4 to 2 Kings chapter 3, does initially attribute this triumph to the god Chemosh. However, the New American Bible then suggests an alternative, monotheistic explanation, which inevitably recognises the polytheistic beliefs of the early Israelites and their belief in the efficacy of child sacrifice: The wrath against Israel:...


8

A theological answer would indicate that Rabbinic Jewish and early Christian thinkers did not attribute bodily form or sex to God, though most attributed male gender owing to the preponderance of typically masculine imagery and grammatical forms for God they saw in the Bible. Growing gender awareness has challenged traditional assumptions, and most Jewish ...


6

In Matt 23:37 we read, "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, you who kill the prophets and stone those sent to you, how often I have longed to gather your children together, as a hen gathers her chicks under her wings, and you were not willing." Thus, Jesus compares Himself to a mother hen - a very beautiful and famous metaphor. The Bible often uses the ...


6

The phrase "eyes of the LORD" in the OT is frequent and denotes several things including: God's omniscience; Prov 22:12, 2 Chron 16:9 God's righteous judgement of actions; Amos 9:8, 1 Kings 15:5, Judges 3:12, 2 Chron 27:2, 29:6, 2 Chron 34:2 God's watch care of His people; Deut 11:12, Prov 15:3, Judges 6:1, 13:1 Fascinatingly, Zechariah contains ...


6

We find this precedent in the OT: Isa 43:3, 11 - For I am the LORD your God, the Holy One of Israel, your Savior; ... I, yes I, am the LORD and there is no Savior but Me. Isa 45:17, 21 - But Israel will be saved by the LORD with an everlasting salvation; ... Who foretold this long ago? Who announced it from ancient times? Was it not I, the LORD? There is no ...


5

Note the statement of Paul (who was NOT omnipresent) in 1 Cor 5:3 Although I am absent from you in body, I am present with you in spirit, ... Thus, we have several options to understand Matt 18:20 - Jesus is present by His [Holy] Spirit, who is omnipresent The believers are present in the Spirit of Christ just as they were present with the spirit of Paul; ...


5

The best answer to this question is provided by the other instance where Jesus used the same metaphor of a tree and its fruit to teach about good works as per Matt 12 - 33 Make a tree good and its fruit will be good, or make a tree bad and its fruit will be bad; for a tree is known by its fruit. 34 You brood of vipers, how can you who are evil say anything ...


4

The forgiveness is not a prerogative of any created angel, even of a highest of them, for forgiveness is prerogative of only God. When God says that His Angel in whom is His name should be obeyed for "He will not forgive", it means that this Angel in whom is the name of God is of the equal dignity and standing with God, and if so, then also co-eternal to Him,...


4

We know that the Son is not aware of the timing of the end of time. It is not revealed to him, for he says so himself, Matthew 24:36 and Mark 13:32. The Person of the Father is aware of something but the Son is not. Whether, or not, the Spirit (who searcheth the deep things of God, 1 Corinthians 2:10) knows from the Father but does not reveal to the Son ; ...


4

In the beginning God created the heavens (plural) and the earth. From other scriptures we know that the third heaven (the heaven of heavens) is God's dwelling place. The first heavens are visible. The second heavens, therefore, are invisible but not God's primary dwelling places. After the statement regarding the beginning, the earth is said to be bohu and ...


4

I would say, No. Your questions, in this place, cannot be answered from this particular passage. Human spirit/human nature is different from Divine Spirit/Divine nature. Comparison is drawn here, between the two, but in a limited way, explaining something which is true of Deity by comparing that same thing with one certain aspect of humanity. One aspect ...


4

This question can be decided on two bases; Grammatical/Semantic and Narrative flow. Grammar/Semantics The operative word he in Gen 3:9 is the final word in the verse, אַיֶּֽכָּה - the interrogative adverb being אַי = "Where" which occurs 36 times in the OT (eg, Gen 3:9, 4:9, 16:8, Deut 32:37, Judges 13:6, 1 Sam 9:18, etc) and is almost always ...


4

Although it is commonplace to apply the title of Savior to Jesus, Paul uses it to refer to God the Father as well. -- A relevant parallel Compare to 1 Timothy 1:1: Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope; I do not doubt there are those who would interpret this passage differently, but ...


4

God is the one Savior [1] who saves through our Lord Jesus Christ [2] . [1] Isa. 43:11 11I, even I, am the LORD, and besides Me there is no savior. [2] Jude 1:25 NLT 25All glory to him who alone is God, our Savior through Jesus Christ our Lord. All glory, majesty, power, and authority are his before all time, and in the present, and beyond all time! ...


4

In all the references quoted by the OP, the word "hand" is NOT in the text. There are many places where this idea is present. Possibly the most complete is in Rev 5:1 which has the phrase (similar to most such references): ἐπὶ τὴν δεξιὰν τοῦ καθημένου ἐπὶ τοῦ θρόνου = "on the right of the one sitting on the throne" Again, note that &...


3

What these verses imply is that, whatever “image of God” implies, sex is irrelevant. In the Jewish view, since God has no physical form at all, it is meaningless to speak of His sex. The various Hebrew words that translate as “God” all have masculine grammatical gender. (The word for “spirit”, ruach, has feminine gender though, so the “spirit of God” which “...


3

Rather than “foolishness” and “weakness,” both abstract nouns, for which the apostle Paul would likely have used (as he did a few verses earlier) the Greek μωρία1 and ἀσθένεια,2 respectively, we should understand μωρὸν3 and ἀσθενὲς4 as adjectives functioning substantively as concrete nouns, each referring to some concrete thing rather than an abstract ...


3

ο θεος αγαπη εστιν [TR - I John 4:8] These are John's exact words in that text. The literal translation of this is 'the God love is'. It could also be rendered 'the Deity love is.' Because the word Theos in Greek, 'God' in English, is neither a name nor a title, it is a concept. The concept is a matter of nature and the nature that is being identified is ...


3

Full disclosure - I hold Trinitarian beliefs. The argument presented in this question for the third person of the Godhead, the Holy Spirit" is very dangerous because it equates the Holy Spirit with the power of Jesus or God. This is precisely the argument used by "Binitarians"* who say that the Holy Spirit is merely the power of God at work in the world ...


3

The answer is that the Hebrew word for arm זְרֹע is a female noun, regardless of who's arm it is. If I were to use the words זרע יצחק meaning Isaac's arm, it would still be a female noun. The word hand and arm are often used to mean power and force. It says that G-d brought Israel out of Egypt ביד חזקה ובזרע נטויה "with a strong hand and an outstretched ...


3

Jesus in John 10 said He is a door, Is he really a door? No, is a symbol, In the same chapter we are represented as sheeps, are we literally sheeps? No, they are symbols. Is God a mother based of an interpretation of a symbol? NO, In the whole Bible He is never referred as mother, but always in a masculine way. Why then we call him Father? because Jesus call ...


3

It is obviously true that mankind was created in the image of God (Gen 1:26, 27) but that this image was marred by sin (Gen 3). The whole purpose of the plan of salvation is to restore that image in us which the the Bible describes in a variety of ways. Since Jesus is the image of God (Col 1:15) the language of the NT is usually to make us like Christ. 2 ...


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