16 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial ...
Cristobol Polychronopolis's user avatar
16 votes
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Did Jesus read the Tanakh in Aramaic?

Did Jesus read the Tanakh in Aramaic? Probably not. Targums As Claude Tresmontant observed, "There were oral translations in Aramaic of the sacred books written in Hebrew; they were called ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
13 votes
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Is there a Greek or Aramaic word for "rope" that is similar to the word for "camel?"

You have the Greek word κάμηλος meaning camel. You have the Greek word κάμιλος meaning rope. In the Talmud (BT 6, 601, 1. 16) we read that the people of Puimbedita deemed themselves so clever ...
LаngLаngС's user avatar
9 votes
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When Jesus read from the Scroll of Isaiah, did he translate it into Aramaic?

When Jesus read from the Scrolls in the synagogue, as reported by the gospel writers, we have several possibilities: Jesus read aloud in Hebrew and then preached in Hebrew, but the gospel writer ...
Dottard's user avatar
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8 votes

Tetelestai - What did Jesus really say in John 19:30 assuming he spoke Aramaic or Hebrew?

Note: I am not disputing how the English translations translate Τετέλεσται, but pointing out the secondary meaning of the word Jesus probably used. The Hebrew word that Τετέλεσται (it is finished) ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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8 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

The Hebrew dialect of Aramaic (as opposed to Babylonian/Imperial Aramaic, Edessan/Syrian Aramaic and other dialects) was the most common vernacular language of Judea, Samaria and Galilee in the ...
wberry's user avatar
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8 votes

When Jesus read from the Scroll of Isaiah, did he translate it into Aramaic?

Written Languages In Jesus' day, the Jewish scriptures existed almost exclusively in 2 languages: The Hebrew Tanakh, Hebrew being the original language of nearly all Jewish sacred writings The Greek ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
7 votes

What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?

There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta. First, ...
A Craig's user avatar
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6 votes
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Why is Jeremiah's name spelled differently in the book of Jeremiah?

Originally the ancient Hebrew pronunciation of "jeremiah" was Yirmeyahu יִרְמְיָ֖הוּ ben cHilqiyahu בֶּן־חִלְקִיָּ֑הוּ . The last letter of Yirmeyahu ( יִרְמְיָ֖הוּ ) is vav with Shuruk ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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6 votes

Did Jesus read the Tanakh in Aramaic?

Based on the text of the NT it is difficult to be confident on this point. As the texts are written in Koine Greek, the vast majority of Tanakh quotes we have are in Greek, and frequently carry over ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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5 votes

What language did Jesus commonly speak?

1. Question Restatement What Language did Jesus commonly speak? ... Summaries from expert historical authorities : 2. Short Answer It is more than plausible that multiple languages were spoken ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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5 votes

Why is Daniel Chapter 2:4 - 7:28 written in Aramaic?

The Aramaic in the Book of Daniel has two purposes: The Aramaic provided a perfect chiasm to the parallel Hebrew portions of the text; and The Aramaic is special divine revelation to the Gentiles, ...
Joseph's user avatar
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5 votes
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Was Any of the New Testament Actually Written in Aramaic?

At one stage, Matthew's Gospel was thought likely to have been written in Hebrew, mainly because it had been attributed to one of the disciples, who would have written for Jewish Christians in Hebrew. ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
5 votes

If Thomas at John 20:28 was speaking in Aramaic, what are the options for what he originally said?

The proper name יהוה ("Yahweh," "LORD") does not take the possessive suffix י ("my"). We know therefore that κυριος ("Lord") does not translate יהוה (the ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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4 votes
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In Daniel 7:15, what is the meaning of the word נִדְנֶה?

The word spelt ndn in both Hebrew and Aramaic means "sheath" (for a sword). Aramaic ndnh means "its sheath" (with the pronominal suffix for the 3rd person singular). It is a loanword from Old Persian. ...
fdb's user avatar
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4 votes

Correct/true translation of Revelation 13:18

Koine Greek does not have an indefinite article, and the definite article is not used the way the english definite article is used. That means it's up to the interpreter to add in indefinite articles ...
Robert's user avatar
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4 votes

Two words for love in John 21:15–17

My Greek professor often commented, "While we don't want to read to much into subtle differences between two words, neither should we read too LITTLE. Two different words used closely together ...
Greek2Me's user avatar
  • 169
4 votes

Why Hebrew in Acts 21:37-40

Despite the translations of the ESV and other versions (e.g. KJV), the Greek Ἑβραΐς (Ebrais) in the New Testament can mean either "Aramaic" or "Hebrew". There are not separate words in Greek for the ...
user33515's user avatar
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4 votes

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

Mark twice quotes Aramaic speech, once as mentioned in the OP and the second time when he quotes the exact words spoken by Jesus during crucifixion : Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani [Mark 15:4, KJV] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

If Thomas at John 20:28 was speaking in Aramaic, what are the options for what he originally said?

The information is limited to answer your question. However, there is no reason to believe the meaning of what Thomas said is not accurately stated in the Greek of John's Gospel. When my is added to ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes

What does Rabboni really mean?

The operative word here is ῥαββουνί (rhabbouni) and, as the OP has listed, occurs just twice in the NT. In John 20:16 it is declared to be a Hebrew word meaning, "teacher". BDAG claims it ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the reason for the difference between Eloi and Eli?

Mark, whose book focuses on the Messenger of the Covenant (see Mark 1:1,2 and Malachi 3: 1-4) whilst Matthew is writing in regard to the kingdom of the heavens (literal) against the background of the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

Did the New Testament Writers Rely on the Hebrew Text?

No, there is very little literary evidence that the New Testament writers relied on the Hebrew texts. The New Testament was written entirely in Greek and it seems likely that few if any of the ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
3 votes
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Why did the bystanders at the cross misunderstand Jesus in Matthew 27:46-47?

Because 2 Kings 2:1-12 records Elijah being taken up in a whirlwind rather than dying, and Malachi prophesies his return, it is natural that he became an important figure in Jewish eschatological ...
למה זה תשאל לשמי's user avatar
3 votes

Why did the bystanders at the cross misunderstand Jesus in Matthew 27:46-47?

The Jews among bystanders would have understood his reference to the psalm. But the Romans, especially the centurions, and other non-believers probably would not have caught the difference between ...
C. Kelly's user avatar
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