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35

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


24

My impression is that Aramaic primacy is not taken very seriously among experts, so there's not much in the way of scholarly works debunking it. (This is not unusual, compare to say mythicism or the theory that Jesus and Mary Magdaline were married, neither of which had scholarly debunkings until recently.) So rather than citing experts, I'm just going to ...


17

Noah has given an excellent answer, but I would like to give other issues with Aramaic primacy. There are NT fragments in Greek that are older than anything in Aramaic. Very early fragments. The John Rylands fragment of John's Gospel, P52 (AD ~125), is older by centuries than any copy of the Peshitta that has survived, and even older than the work in the ...


14

These variations in the divine name are not so much about different languages, but different phases of Hebrew. See the YHWH article by Freedman, O'Connor & Ringgren in Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, (Eerdmans, 1986), vol. 5, pp. 500-521. The "contracted" forms are usually used in theophoric names: at the beginning: yəhô- as in יְהוֹאָחָז ...


14

Hasting's dictionary is an old book and it does not reflect current scholarly opinion about Semitic languages. The Aramaic word ṭalyā, feminine ṭlīṯā is an adjective meaning “young”, and then a noun meaning “boy/girl” and “servant”. It is etymologically related to Hebrew ṭāle, Arabic ṭalā, which mean “young animal” and specifically “lamb”, but this is not ...


11

During the Intertestamental period, Judas the Maccabee (the Hammer) led a major revolt in Israel. This is the Hasmonean revolt (beginning in 167 BC). After Judah and the other Hasmoneans led the people to victory in a major battle, the people had a celebration. They cut off palm branches, waved them in the air, and shouted "Hosanna!" Judah was killed in ...


10

The two languages are related (both are Northwest Semtic languages) and eventually shared a script. Hebrew, prior to the exile used its own script called Paleo-Hebrew. It was still used afterwards in isolated places and instances, but what we now call Aramaic Square replaced it for the most part. Though they share many common words and large pieces of ...


10

According to the NET translators' notes, Scholars debate the appropriateness of this verse to this context. Many see it as a gloss added by a postexilic scribe which was later incorporated into the text. Both R. E. Clendenen (“Discourse Strategies in Jeremiah 10, ” JBL 106 [1987]: 401-8) and W. L. Holladay (Jeremiah [Hermeneia], 1:324–25, 334–35) ...


10

You have the Greek word κάμηλος meaning camel. You have the Greek word κάμιλος meaning rope. In the Talmud (BT 6, 601, 1. 16) we read that the people of Puimbedita deemed themselves so clever that they could put an elephant through a needle's eye… Some later MSS read in Mark 10, 25 and the two parallel passages κάμιλος, cable, instead of κάμηλος, ...


7

There are a whole host of explanations that have been proffered. Most of this answer is based on this book which summarises the consensus opinion that the first six chapters and the remaining ones constitute two separate sections (textually that isn't difficult to see, the first section is narrative and the second visionary, they also run chronologically ...


7

Yes, it is available online at the Hebrew Union College's Jewish Institute of Religion in their Comprehensive Aramaic Project. Just click on "Search the CAL textual databases" in the left column. Then go to "Targum Studies Module," then "Browse a Single Targum," and you will see Targum Neofiti. Note that every word is tagged so you can click on it for a ...


7

As you've pointed out, Gehenna (γέεννα) is just a transliteration of the Hebrew for "Valley of Hinnom" (גֵּי הִנֹּם) and the Aramaic for the same (גֵיהִנָּם / ܓܗܢܐ). The NET translators point out, This was the valley along the south side of Jerusalem. In OT times it was used for human sacrifices to the pagan god Molech (cf. Jer 7:31; 19:5–6; 32:35), ...


7

Great references @David, but after the exile there appears to be a linguistic aspect to the variations. We can begin by separating the historical phases—pre-exilic, exilic, and post-exilic periods. Many have puzzled over all the variations of the name, because if derived from it they should somehow “resemble” the full name itself (and only one does this—the ...


7

Tg. Ps. J stands for Targum of Pseudo Jonathan. It is a Targum of the western tradition, a translation of the Pentateuch. It is called Pseudo Jonathan because for years it was thought to be the work of Jonathan b. Uzziel. Most scholars conclude this is due to a printer's error. According to this opinion, the work was originally known as Targum Jerushalmi (...


7

This answer adds some supplementary material to the fine answer already posted. Sebastian Brock records particular comment on his preferred form of maranatha in the preface to the collection of his essays, Fire from Heaven: Studies in Syriac Theology and Liturgy (Ashgate, 2006), p. vi: Invocations of the Holy Spirit are found in all liturgical traditions ...


6

Below are a few different entries for the Greek word ὡσαννά (copied from BibleWorks 8): Friberg Lexicon 29106 ὡσαννά a particle transliterated from the Aramaic; strictly, a cry expressing an appeal for divine help save! help, we pray! in a liturgical usage, a shout of praise and worship hosanna, we praise you (MT 21.9) Louw-Nida Lexicon 33.364 ...


6

The oldest and most studied claim of this sort is that there was an Aramaic gospel which served as a source for the synoptics. In particular, many early church fathers believed that the original version of Matthew was written in Aramaic based in part on the writings of Papias who said: "For Matthew composed the logia [sayings] in Hebrew style; but each ...


6

According to Fr. Patrick Henry Reardon1, the spelling difference is inconsequential. The spelling difference does not change the meaning and has more to do with transliteration (from Greek) than translation. The only way of distinguishing grammatical number is through diacritics, which were not added to the language until a couple centuries after the writing ...


6

In Mt 6:13 the Syriac translation of the Bible (Pšīttā) has bīšā (ܒܝܫܐ), which is masculine gender, determinate state, singular of the adjective “bad, evil”, so the most literal translation would be “the evil one”. The abstract noun “evil, badness” is bīšūṯā (ܒܝܫܘܬܐ), or you can use the feminine determinate singular of the adjective, namely bīštā (ܒܝܫܬܐ) ...


6

Matthew 27:46: ܘܠܐܦܝ ܬܫܥ ܫܥܝܢ ܩܥܐ ܝܫܘܥ ܒܩܠܐ ܪܡܐ ܘܐܡܪ ܐܝܠ ܐܝܠ ܠܡܢܐ ܫܒܩܬܢܝ Around (in the surface, face of) the ninth hour (3 o'clock in Roman time), Jesus yelled in a loud voice, saying "Ayl Ayl lamana shabaqthani" Written Ayl Ayl, lamana shabaqthani, Ayl means God in Syriac. It's independently ܐܝܠ but ܐܠ as a compound in names. lamana ...


6

Having read the presentation myself, I find the idea pretty interesting. After all, it is quite likely that the Lord's Prayer was taught in Aramaic and not Koine Greek and, as such, would sound very different in accentuation, rhyme and tone - let alone the rhythm that good verse demands! There are a few problems with his process that lead me to say we ...


5

There are two primary pieces of linguistic evidence that can be used to refute Peshitta primacy: the dialect used in Peshitta, and the use of geyr and deyn throughout the text of Peshitta. First, regarding the dialect of Peshitta: In Peshitta all verbs in the 3rd person Masculine Imperfective form use the n'- prefix. The only Aramaic dialect that used that ...


5

Check out James R. Edwards' book, The Hebrew Gospel and the Development of the Synoptic Tradition. From my review in the Stone-Campbell Journal, 14:2 Fall, 2011: This volume presents an older idea concerning the formation of the Synoptic Gospels, while connecting the data in a new way. The current volume resurrects an older idea concerning the formation ...


5

The scanned manuscript itself is online at the Vatican Digital Library (Biblioteca Apostolica Vaticana).


5

Daniel 7:27 reads: ומלכותה ושלטנא ורבותא די מלכות תחות כל־שמיא יהיבת לעם קדישי עליונין מלכותה מלכות עלם וכל שלטניא לה יפלחון וישתמעון׃ First of all, this is not Hebrew but Aramaic. The third word from the end (in bold) is l-eh, with the suffix for the third person singular masculine. It could mean “to him” (that is: to the most high one), but since the ...


5

At one stage, Matthew's Gospel was thought likely to have been written in Hebrew, mainly because it had been attributed to one of the disciples, who would have written for Jewish Christians in Hebrew. That hypothesis would work equally well or even better if Matthew had been written in Aramaic. Research has now shown that Matthew could only have been written ...


4

From the New Bible Commentary, 2nd Edition (1954), on Mark 14:36: Abba (36) is Aramaic for 'Father.' The addition of Pater (Father) is probably not a translation by Mark. Some think the two words together are a very early liturgical formula of address in prayer. But it is more likely that they reflect a natural prayer habit of Jesus Himself, which some ...


4

What Language Did Jesus Speak Most Often? The scholarly consensus is clear on this issue: Jesus' native tongue was Aramaic, specifically a Galilean dialect of Aramaic. Why Were Jesus' Words Recorded In Greek? It is simple to understand why the Gospels were written in Greek. Most of the communities of early Christians were Greek-speaking; this was ...


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