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is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

The history of this hermeneutical question is fascinating. Evidently, there has been in church history different practices in the Christian church based upon this variation. For example, an article in ...
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is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

acts 2:38. Being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ means being baptized while confessing that Jesus is the Messiah. It has nothing to do with what the baptizer says. Since Jesus is the Son of God ...
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is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

In short, no. To see why there is no contradiction, let us look at the context of Acts 2:38. Peter's words in v38 come after his sermon (VSS 14-36). Verses 14-21 are the introduction to Peter's sermon....
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2 votes

is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

Daniel Wallace, in his book "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics," offers a very good explanation of the use of the term in the original language using this text as an example. Since I do not ...
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3 votes
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What does “put at the apostles’ feet” mean in Acts 4:32-5:2?

Note the helpful remarks from the Cambridge commentary on Acts 4:35 - and laid them down at the apostles’ feet A significant act, whereby it was shewn that they gave the Apostles entire control over ...
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2 votes

What is the meaning of the phrase "men and brethren" in Acts?

Men = a male whose confession of JESUS as Christ is NOT known. Brethren = a male whose confession of JESUS as Christ is known. That’s my simple understanding of the terms.
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is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

There is no readily apparent resolution to this paradox. As instruction is given but no one, in the entire NT, ever followed this instruction as far as the record shows. There is little reason however ...
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3 votes

is there a contradiction between Matthew 28:18-20 & Acts 2:38?

There WOULD be a contradiction between Matt 28:19, 20 and Acts 2:38 IF Matt 28:19 said something like: ... baptize in the names of the Father and Son and Holy Spirit. But, in fact, it does NOT say ...
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1 vote

Why does the KJV translate Acts 5:24 the way it does?

There is a difference in Greek text in Acts 5:24 as follows: NA28/UBS5 etc: ὡς δὲ ἤκουσαν τοὺς λόγους τούτους ὅ τε στρατηγὸς τοῦ ἱεροῦ καὶ οἱ ἀρχιερεῖς, διηπόρουν περὶ αὐτῶν τί ἂν γένοιτο τοῦτο = Now ...
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1 vote

Question regarding “baptism for the remission of sins” in Acts 2:38

In popular circles, it is commonly claimed that instead of being baptized with the goal of obtaining the forgiveness of sins, people are baptized to declare or symbolize that one has already obtained ...
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How far was a "Sabbath's Day Journey"?

2 miles seems to be a Sabbath's Day journey. See Luke 24:50-51 (ESV) And he led them out as far as Bethany, and lifting up his hands he blessed them. [51] While he blessed them, he parted from them ...
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5 votes

The Whole Church?

Not so fast - the word ἐκκλησία (congregation, or assembly) has different meanings in different places depending on context. For example, (according to BDAG) the word can mean any of (see BDAG for a ...
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How do we reconcile Romans 3:11 with Acts 17

Firstly, let me list the two words involved: In Rom 3:11, "seek" translates the verb ἐκζητέω (ekzeteo) = seek out, search for, required, etc, eg, Luke 11:50, 51, Acts 15:17, Rom 3:11, Heb ...
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1 vote

How long did Saul reign?

One has to do a bit of detective work to figure this conundrum out. Before reading this answer, I would recommend that you read Michael Heiser's short article, from the second subheading "Who ...
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2 votes

Why did John the Baptist's Ephesian disciples (Acts 19:1-3), not listed as his disciples (Mat 3:5), say John never mentioned Holy Spirit (Mat 3:11)?

I’ve never read this as them being John’s disciples, but rather as disciples of Apollos, and that Apollos baptized them into John’s baptism and never explained the Holy Spirit to them. As we see in ...
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1 vote

Is there a contradiction between 2 Timothy 3:16-17 and Acts 16:6-10?

I agree that the canon of scripture as we now have it, is complete as suggested (but not conclusively) by 2 Tim 3:16. Actually, the completeness of Scripture as we now have it is not really defined ...
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Why did John the Baptist's Ephesian disciples (Acts 19:1-3), not listed as his disciples (Mat 3:5), say John never mentioned Holy Spirit (Mat 3:11)?

I believe they had heard of the Holy Ghost because John spoke of it! They said they had not so much as heard that there be any Holy Ghost or that they had not heard the Holy Ghost was given yet!
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2 votes
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Is there a contradiction between 2 Timothy 3:16-17 and Acts 16:6-10?

No contradiction here Formal logic This argument commits the fallacy of denying the antecedent. The classic form of this fallacy is: P1: P => Q P2: ~P C: ~Q This is invalid. We can apply that ...
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1 vote

Is there a contradiction between 2 Timothy 3:16-17 and Acts 16:6-10?

There is no contradiction. In the passage of the epistle to Timothy, Paul says that all scripture has an Origin in God and that it is good for different purposes, giving the the men of God (those who ...
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5 votes
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Does the election of Matthias as an apostle via casting of lots (Acts 1:21-26) contradict 1 Corinthians 12?

No contradiction here; the Christian leaders at the Jerusalem council illustrate how this works. Example of Inspired Church Leadership From Acts 15: 7 After much discussion, Peter got up and ...
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2 votes

Does the election of Matthias as an apostle via casting of lots (Acts 1:21-26) contradict 1 Corinthians 12?

The ‘church’ was newly formed. The members would have been well versed in Torah. So would have by nature followed Old Testament process. There is no one verse in the book of Psalms that contains the ...
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