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2 Thessalonians 2:11 - [SBL GNT] καὶ διὰ τοῦτο πέμπειa αὐτοῖς ὁ θεὸς ἐνέργειαν πλάνης εἰς τὸ πιστεῦσαι αὐτοὺς τῷ ψεύδει... [translit] kai dia touto pempeia autois ho theos energeian planēs eis to pisteusai autous tō pseudei... [NRSV] For this reason God sends them a powerful delusion, leading them to believe what is false... a πέμπει pempei = "sends" ...


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This passage does not specifically mention the ability to work, but the desire to work. The portion in question you are mentioning is specifically the phrase "that if any would not work, neither should he eat." Here is the Greek for that phrase: ὅτι εἴ τις οὐ θέλει ἐργάζεσθαι μηδὲ ἐσθιέτω I have emphasized the word which we translate "would". In English,...


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Preterists might identify him as Nero or some other first century person. Premillenialists are likely to say it is the leader of a reborn Roman empire, or perhaps the pope. Many of the Reformers agreed that it was the pope. That is because Christian tradition from the ealiest times associates this person with the idea of "antichrist." I'm talking about ...


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Dr. Robert B. Chisholm, professor of Old Testament Studies at Dallas Theological Seminary, wrote an extensive article on the theme of divine deception within the Hebrew Bible: "Does God Deceive?" Bibliotheca Sacra 155 (1998): 11-28. He cites more than 10 specific examples of divine deception in the Hebrew Bible (for example, see footnote 37 of his article, ...


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In responding to this question, I at first wish to affirm what @Joseph and @David responded: that the key to understanding the text lies in what comes previously in the chapter, the 'son of perdition/destruction' initiates the strong delusion after the working of Satan. Therefore, one can rightly concur that, It is through this person that the Lord will ...


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Tau's answer explains why the antichrist may be synonymous with the man of lawlessness and the beast described in Revelation 13. I would add to that as the question also asks: Are there any reasons to believe they are not the same? There are some reasons to believe they are not the same. First, the term antichrist is not used anywhere other than 1 and 2 ...


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My own understanding of that text is that what is present on earth, a mysterious presence called 'Wicked', shall be consumed ('annihilated' is quite a good translation of αναλισκο, analisko Strong 355) during time, by 'the spirit of his mouth'. Then, at the end of time, that same Entity will be fully destroyed by the brightness of the glorious return of ...


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The concept of God sending evil spirits to bring judgment is throughout the whole Bible. The ‘demonic’ realm operates entirely within God’s will. There is nothing they can do without permission or legal rights. Though like squatters they might need forceful eviction, hence the Greek is stronger than the English casting out. But that’s another tangential ...


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The potential for exegetical error by treating "God" as a noun to which simple anaphoric axioms are applied may be seen by comparing the openings of the two letters to the Thessalonians: Since this letter is the second, the exegetical consideration of an anaphoric use does not begin with the second greeting. Rather, the greeting in the first ...


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The opposite of love is selfishness:  So if there is any encouragement in Christ, any comfort from love, any participation in the Spirit, any affection and sympathy, 2 complete my joy by being of the same mind, having the same love, being in full accord and of one mind. 3 Do nothing from selfish ambition or conceit, but in humility count others more ...


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Because God is both immanent and transcendent. He is omnipresent and not bound by the confines of His creation (transcendent). He is uniquely separate from His creation; thus He is not "hanging out in the clouds". But for those who are in Christ (to whom the scripture is addressed) He is also immanent--with them at all times through His indwelling. In ...


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I'm not sure there is a contradiction between the two letters, in 1 Thess 5:1 Paul says "But concerning the times and the seasons, brethren, you have no need that I should write to you." (NKJV) in 5:4 he says, "But you, brethren, are not in darkness, so that this Day should overtake you as a thief." and 5:6 says, "Therefore let us not sleep, as others do, ...


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The beginning of the second letter should be compared to the first: Here are the keys phrases: ἐν θεῷ πατρὶ καὶ κυρίῳ Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ ἐν θεῷ πατρὶ ἡμῶν καὶ κυρίῳ Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ θεοῦ πατρὸς καὶ κυρίου Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ The addition of ...


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For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. Not as Cain, who was of that wicked one, and slew his brother. And wherefore slew he him? Because his own works were evil, and his brother's righteous. [1 John 3:13 KJV] Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from ...


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The view that the church fathers held that persisted in Christian theology down through the Reformers was that the Papacy was the man of lawlessness. Their understanding of 2 Thessalonians 2 was that the Roman Empire was "that which was restrains" the revealing of the man of lawlessness. It was only in the 1600's, in an attempt to divert attention away from ...


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I think we need to take another look at the Greek word apostasia here. Firstly, we need to understand that its usage is not exclusive to a departure from anything specific. It is only used twice in the New Testament (Acts 21:21; 2 Thess 2:3), but other forms (derivations) of the word appear in places such as Luke 4:13, Luke 1:8, etc. It was also used in ...


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The phrase 'all that is called God' is difficult to analyze in English because the proper noun 'God' ('God' with a capital G) is known to be reserved to him who possess the divine identity and divine substance (cf. 1 Corinthians 8:6; Galatians 4:8). In Trinitarian theology, this would be construed as the individual who self-identifies (claims) as someone ...


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I've spent some time wondering about this passage also, and will share my current exegesis, without trying to say any other answer is wrong. There may be many interpretations of this dense passage. Background First, let's understand the background. The Church in Thessalonica was worried that the Day of the Lord had already come, and they were left behind (...


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The "Beast" and the Antichrist have been interpreted as being one in the same because from the days of the Early Church Fathers, they have been considered as one and the same. Even prior to the writing of Revelations, the Apostle Paul says,(2 Thess. 2:8-9 KJV) And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his ...


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Temple means the sanctuary consisting of the Holy Place and the Most Holy Place [ναός-naos]. These contained five pieces of furniture: a table for showbread an altar for incense a lampstand for light the Ark of the Covenant the Mercy Seat which was placed on the Ark The only place to sit is on the Mercy Seat covering the Ark. There are three ways in which ...


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Paul does not tell us of the afflictions that the church at Thessalonica suffered, other than to compare them closely to the afflictions suffered by Jewish Christians in Judea. I could provide an informed opinion on this, based on the parallels, but should first of all take into account that most biblical scholars believe 1 Thessalonians 2:13-16 to be an ...


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The NIV translation of 2 Thessalonian 2:9 seems to be a minority view among popular English-language Bibles. An interlinear translation leaves little room for "serve the lie". In this case, the KJV seems representative of the majority translation (In the following extracts I will use whichever of NIV or KJV is the clearer or apparently more ...


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The first verse of 2 Thessalonians is "Paul, and Sylvanus, and Timothy, to the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ." The letter clearly claims to be a joint work of these three men. Perhaps any stylistic differences in the epistle may be accounted for by attributing certain parts to Paul, others to Sylvanus, and others ...


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"The salutation of Paul ..." What Paul is saying here is not that every single letter by him will contain a special sign (σημεῖον) or that this particular greeting is the special sign. As is explained in this podcast, Paul normally dictated his Epistles to someone, but he himself always wrote the last couple of lines in his own hand. This allowed those ...


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Paul would very likely have used his handwriting for authentication as you pointed out, but as Origen wrote, “Only God knows for certain who wrote this book.” Here are three excellent links that include a good representation of the arguments for and against Pauline authorship. https://zondervanacademic.com/blog/who-wrote-the-book-of-hebrews/ http://...


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2 Thessalonians 3:17 isn't enough evidence to dispute Paul's authorship of the book of Hebrews, Paul being the apostle to the gentiles as clearly identified in his commission: Acts 26:16-18 16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, ...


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