28
votes
In 2 Samuel 11:4, what does it mean by "David slept with Bathsheba because she was pure"?
This is about ritual purity, not moral purity.
According to Leviticus 15:19-30, a woman is unclean during her monthly period, until 7 days have passed. It may be as simple as she had been on her ...
17
votes
Accepted
How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?
As a commenter notes, there is a text-critical issue here.
The Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible plainly reads "Michal" at this point. However, as the textual notes to the Biblia Hebraica ...
12
votes
Accepted
Did David not defile himself by taking back Michal in 2 Samuel 3?
Looking at the texts of Deuteronomy 24 and Jeremiah 3, I'd suggest the key aspect of these verses are divorce:
"...her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after ...
10
votes
Accepted
Why did David flee Absalom?
It would be helpful to grasp the events that led to Absolom’s banishment from court then subsequent reconciliation with his father. These events are recorded in 2 Samuel 13 and 14. Absolom returned ...
10
votes
2 Samuel 1:26 -- How does the Vulgate have a sentence not present in the Masoretic text or Septuagint?
Scholarly opinion is that the additional sentence in the Latin translation of 2 Sam 1:26 (Sicut mater unicum amat filium suum, ita ego te diligebam) is a mediaeval interpolation; that is to say: it ...
9
votes
Why did God forgive David (2 Samuel 12:13), but not Judas (Matthew 27:3-4) for an identical confession of sin?
I will offer a response to this question two ways:
Assuming David was forgiven
Considering the possibility that David was not forgiven
Assuming David was forgiven
The Lord’s words to Samuel put it ...
8
votes
In 2 Samuel 11:4, what does it mean by "David slept with Bathsheba because she was pure"?
For the phrase in question, the Hebrew text states וְהִיא מִתְקַדֶּשֶׁת מִטֻּמְאָתָהּ (vehiy mitkaddeshet mitumʿatah). To note, the Hebrew text lacks the conjunction כִּי (ki); therefore, translating ...
8
votes
Accepted
How did the Lord 'put away' the sin of David? 2 Samuel 12:13
The answer can be gleaned from other places in the Bible where King David and his sin is spoken of. Paul writes in Romans 4:5-8:
“But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ...
7
votes
Why does God not just permit but seemingly encourage David's polygamy in 2 Samuel 12:8?
There is no doubt that polygamy was common in Israel; Elkannah, David, Solomon, Saul, Abraham, Jacob, etc, etc. In 2 Sam 12:8 we find that -
I gave your master’s house to you and your master’s wives ...
7
votes
Why did God forgive David (2 Samuel 12:13), but not Judas (Matthew 27:3-4) for an identical confession of sin?
Summary
There is nothing in the Scripture to support a conclusion that God responded to the sin of David and Judas differently, and in the case of Judas' sin, the account demonstrates the deficiency ...
6
votes
Accepted
Does David lament the destruction of Saul and Jonathan's weapons or their loss?
איך נפלו גבורים ויאבדו כלי מלחמה
In this verse there is - patently - a synonymic parallelism. Besides the first term (איך), that is (in this context) an interjection of astonishment, the rest of the ...
6
votes
Did David not defile himself by taking back Michal in 2 Samuel 3?
Scripture comments after Michal despised David for his exuberance at the bringing in of the ark (2 Samuel 6:20-23) :
Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
[2 ...
6
votes
Why did God forgive David (2 Samuel 12:13), but not Judas (Matthew 27:3-4) for an identical confession of sin?
This is a very interesting question - and I don’t have a ready answer. Nevertheless there are some aspects which are worth consideration.
JOHN 17:12 While I was with them in the world, I kept them in ...
5
votes
Is the Destroyer of Exodus 12:23 the same as that of Revelation 9:11?
Exodus 12:23 uses the term ham-mas-hit to name "the destroyer." An interesting verse rarely used here and almost never translated is Isaiah 54:16 which states that YHWH (the Lord) created the ...
5
votes
Did David not break his oath when he handed Saul's descendants to the Gibeonites in 2 Samuel 21?
Saul and Ahinoam - 6 children:
Jonathan -> Mephibosheth - Mica - etc.
Ishui (Abinadab)
Melchishua
Ishbosheth (Eshbaal)
Merab (f) (eldest) - [five children by Adriel]
Michal (f) - wife of David ...
5
votes
Accepted
Was David's letter sealed so that Uriah could not open it?
In 2015 an unprecedented archaeological event took place - the finding of a 3,000 year old royal seal dated to the time of King David :
The dating of the seal corresponds to the historical period of ...
5
votes
Accepted
What's the significance of Absalom's heavy hair?
Keil and Delitzsch Biblical Commentary on the Old Testament offers this rather obvious comment:
A strong growth of hair was a sign of great manly power, and so far a
proof of Absalom's beauty.
The ...
5
votes
How did the Lord 'put away' the sin of David? 2 Samuel 12:13
God sent Nathan to David to expose his sin and pronounce God’s judgment upon him:
“Now therefore the sword shall never depart from thine house; because thou hast despised me, and hast taken the wife ...
5
votes
Why does God speak to David using both second and third-person in 2 Samuel 7:12-16?
The third-person pronouns are directed toward David's offspring (per NIV), as in:
I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, your own flesh and
blood, and I will establish his kingdom.
That &...
5
votes
2 Samuel 11:14 In what form of Hebrew did David write in?
Hebrew writing inscriptions near the time of David
He would have used paleo-Hebrew handwriting. Here are a few inscriptions that would have handwriting near the time of David.
Tel Dan stele
The ...
5
votes
Accepted
Understanding 1 Chr. 17:21 (2 Sam. 7:23) & Ams. 9:7, "What other nation have you redeemed?"
A literal translation of those three verses is interesting. Young's Literal Translation does not use the word 'redeemed' in 1 Chron. 17:21; he says 'ransomed'. However, in 2 Sam. 7:23 he uses the ...
4
votes
Is the Destroyer of Exodus 12:23 the same as that of Revelation 9:11?
The LXX Greek translation of Hebrew transliteration for destroyer in Exodus 12:23 (hammashit) is olethreyonta, a different word from appollyon. Hebrew abbaddon is not used in Exodus 12:23. Isaiah 37:...
4
votes
In 2 Samuel 23:20 who were the "Lion Men of Moab"?
The word you translate as lion men (אֲרִאֵל, 'ari'el) also appears with different spellings in Isaiah 29:1,7 (as a reference to Jerusalem, possibly playing on its meaning as Temple/altar which was in ...
4
votes
Accepted
Why did Jacob and David do nothing when tragedy happened in the family?
Jacob
Jacob didn't take revenge against Shechem for raping his daughter because he was afraid of the reactions of the Canaanites. Jacob clearly says why he didn't want to avenge himself on Shechem ...
4
votes
Why does God not just permit but seemingly encourage David's polygamy in 2 Samuel 12:8?
And I gave you your master's house, and your master's wives into your bosom, and gave you the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given to you such and ...
4
votes
How did the Lord 'put away' the sin of David? 2 Samuel 12:13
In my view Anne and Lesley have given strong answers. I would like to mention a few verses which fit in with them: ESV only-
Hebrews 9:13 David sinned at a time when "the blood of goats and bulls....
4
votes
Why did God forgive David (2 Samuel 12:13), but not Judas (Matthew 27:3-4) for an identical confession of sin?
The answer is simple - there are two problems with Judas' confession -
It was not to Jesus, the one he had betrayed
It was sorrow for the consequences and not the sin itself
True confession leads to ...
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