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The OP asks about the context of the chapter. I can’t do better on the analysis of the Greek than Dottard already has, so I’ll focus my thoughts on the context, acknowledging that I do think most English translations have been misleadingly harsh in their renderings of αὐθεντέω and ἡσυχίᾳ. Personal or General 1 Timothy is one of the Pauline letters that is ...


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The big "problem" in 1 Tim 2 is V11 & 12. As commonly translated in modern versions, the NIV is typical, but its margin offers a significant alternative. “(v11) A woman [wife]margin should learn in quietness and full submission. (v12) I do not permit a woman [wife]margin to teach or to assume authority over a man [husband]margin; she must be ...


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The Greek present tense shares with the imperfect tense the linguistic quality of imperfective aspect. This means that the event is not seen as a single, completed and specific event. One aspect under the imperfective is the iterative or repeated action. The present tense is often as here used with plural subjects. It is not a question of one woman marrying ...


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Paul wrote 1 Timothy directly addressing Timothy: 1:1 Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus by the command of God our Savior and of Christ Jesus our hope, 2 To Timothy my true son in the faith: The contents of the letter concerned not just Timothy but the local church as well. 3As I urged you when I went into Macedonia, stay there in Ephesus so that you may ...


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Paul here is talking about young widows as a group or as a class and not about each individually. Therefore, he expects the young widows as a class to continue until Christ returns doing the four things listed. There is no expectation that each individual young widow will bear children without ceasing.


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What does it mean when a verb is all three of these things at once? 1 Timothy 5:14 So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. In this sentence, Paul used Greek infinitives because of the modal verb "would have". One can rewrite it without the infinitives or ...


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What does it mean when a verb is all three of these things at once? 1 Timothy 5:14 So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. In this sentence, Paul used Greek infinitives because of the modal verb "would have". One can rewrite it without the infinitives or ...


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The word ἀνδραποδιστής (andrapodistés) occurs only here in 1 Tim 1:10 in the NT. BDAG gives this meaning: one who acquires persons for use by others, slave-dealer, kidnapper The word literally means, "one taken in war and sold as a slave" (BDAG). Thayer has something very similar. This text is significant in the NT doctrine about the place of ...


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I think the present day equivalent would be 'traffickers'. The legitimate conquest of unruly nations results in whole populations being available for compulsory recruitment. But I do not think Paul is referring to that. Nor, in my own view, is it deserving of the term 'slavery'. 'Colonialism' might better fit that situation. I believe Paul is referring to ...


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for slave traders ἀνδραποδισταῖς (andrapodistais) Noun - Dative Masculine Plural Strong's Greek 405: An enslaver, one who forcibly enslaves, a kidnapper. From a derivative of a compound of aner and pous; an enslaver. Thayer's Greek Lexicon a slave, a man taken in war and sold into slavery), a slave-dealer, kidnapper, man-stealer, i. e. as well one who ...


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