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7 votes

Is "theos" of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?

John William Burgon wrote “The Revision Revised” (1881) to which anyone would have to refer sooner or later to decide if there was any merit in Sir Isaac Newton’s assertions concerning 1 Timothy 3:16. ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
7 votes

1 Timothy 4:10; is the Will of the Father to save all Human beings?

The text of 1 Tim 4:10 says what it says - that God wants to save all people. This idea is taught in many places such as: John 1:29, “Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.” ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes
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Hebrews 9:28 - is 'many' necessarily exclusionary?

OP: Is 'many' necessarily exclusionary? No. The relevant bit of Heb 9:28 (NA-28 | ESV): οὕτως καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἅπαξ προσενεχθεὶς εἰς τὸ πολλῶν ἀνενεγκεῖν ἁμαρτίας so Christ also, having been ...
Susan's user avatar
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6 votes

Is 1 Timothy 1:17 about God (IE: the Father) or about Jesus?

There is a need to carefully look into the following corollary passages to answer the question. John 1:18: No one has seen God at any time; John 4:24: God is Spirit [therefore incorporeal]; John 6:...
Tesfaye Wolde's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Does it follow from 1 Timothy 6:13-16 that the souls of human beings are not inherently immortal?

The root word for immortality here is ἀθανασία ("athanasia"), also used by Paul in 1 Cor. 15:53-54, therein to describe the change from a mortal body which will die to an immortal body that ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
6 votes
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How did slaves honoring their masters impact Paul’s doctrine?

"Honouring" them is actually about obeying them, which is the key to the relationship. He means that people would be saying to each other; "That teaching relating to the Christian God ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
5 votes

In 1 Timothy 2:4 does "all" refer to all men or to all "sorts" of men?

At face value, it simply means “God wants everyone to be saved,” without exception. As for the verbs “want” and “will” as translations of the Greek verb θέλει, they are synonymous when used in this ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
5 votes

What is the difference between eternal life and immortality.?

Luke records the words, Luke 8:14, of Jesus when he describes the cares and riches and pleasures of life, using the Greek word bios, life - the time on earth, the living on the planet. Luke also ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes
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In 1 Timothy 6:15 did Paul mean God the Father or God the Son?

The word God (θεός - Theos) does not actually appear at all in the Greek text either verse 15 or either of the verses before or after it. The literal Greek of verse 15 probably reads closer to ...
user33515's user avatar
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5 votes

1 Timothy 4:10; is the Will of the Father to save all Human beings?

The answers I see here so far all seem to subscribe to the idea of a General Atonement (Jesus died for all men) but there is also the concept of Limited Atonement (that Jesus died only for his chosen ...
Eric Petroelje's user avatar
5 votes

Can Unclean food be received with thanksgiving?

After the flood, Yahveh gave Noah (man) every living creature for food. Genesis 9:3 3 Every moving thing that lives shall be food for you. I have given you all things, even as the green herbs.New ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
4 votes
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What does "above reproach" mean?

The Greek word is ἀνέγκλητος (anegklētos). The root word κλητός (klētos) means called or summoned and in classical Greek has a legal connotation (e.g. being "summoned to court"). The ...
user33515's user avatar
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4 votes
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In 1 Timothy 1:9 what does Paul mean that the law is not made for a righteous person?

There is a different meaning altogether. To arrive at that meaning we need to look elsewhere in Paul's writings. A great place to start is Romans, where Paul says, . . . God has done what the ...
rhetorician's user avatar
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4 votes

In 1 Timothy 1:9 what does Paul mean that the law is not made for a righteous person?

As an example of what Paul is saying, consider the sixth commandment: Thou shalt not murder. Any community of people who are unaware of this law can be divided into two distinct groups: those who have ...
enegue's user avatar
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4 votes

Is 1 Timothy 1:17 about God (IE: the Father) or about Jesus?

Paul, in 1 Timothy, has the expression twice: 1 Tim 1:17 - Now to the King eternal, immortal, and invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen. 1 Tim 6:15, 16 - which the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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Then who will save a woman those who are not bearing child?

There is a problem with the English translations of this verse. In the kJV it reads "they shall be saved in childbearing". The ASV says "saved through her child-bearing". The CEV ...
Gina's user avatar
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4 votes
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Why should Timothy use wine?

Starting with your #3 -- the challenges of getting clean water is an issue as old as civilization itself, as this Wikipedia article describes: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/...
JDM-GBG's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Was Paul saying that you should only be widowed once to qualify for church support in 1 Timothy 5:9?

γεγονυια ενος ανδρος γυνη being . . . of one man . . . wife [EGNT] ... having been the wife of one man [KJV] ... having been a wife of one husband [YLT] A widow approaching, or being recommended to, ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

To whom does the term "one God" refer in Paul?

One God The Shema as found in Deuteronomy is the primary text for "one God:" “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.[b] (Deuteronomy 6:4) [ESV] b. Or The LORD our God is one LORD; ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
4 votes

In 1 Timothy 1:20, what is the meaning of delivering persons to Satan?

In 1 Timothy 1:20, what is the meaning of delivering persons to Satan? 1 Timothy 1:20 (KJV); Of whom is Hymenaeus and Alexander; whom I have delivered unto Satan, that they may learn not to ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
4 votes

How to understand 1 Timothy 2:9 in light of 1 Corinthians 11:15?

How to understand 1 Timothy 2:9 in light of 1 Corinthians 11:15? Consider another example: Suppose you are drawn to a certain style of dress that could possibly disturb some in the congregation. Yet, ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
4 votes

Did Paul say to Timothy that it was okay to eat e.g., rabbit meat?

Much of Paul's letter to Timothy concerns Gnosticism and asceticism, which frowns on physical pleasure, in particular with regard to eating meat of any kind. "They forbid people to marry and ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
4 votes

What's the best translation for προσέχοντας in 1 Timothy 3:8?

Likewise must the deacons be grave, not doubletongued, not given to much wine, not greedy of filthy lucre; μη οινω πολλω προσεχοντας [TR undisputed] 'Not to wine much given' (the literal translation ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is 1 Timothy 3:16 wording so critical that if one wrong word is used, the relationship of Father with Son, and Who became flesh, is made uncertain?

I wish to look at the theological reasons for why the WH/Nestle school could weaken the relationship between Father and Son by not saying God was manifested in flesh at the incarnation. [Verbatim ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.8k

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