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1 Tim 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 all feature the phrase mias gynaikas andra, lit. 'one woman man' or 'one wife husband'. Mounce notes that "This phrase is one of the most difficult phrases in the PE"[1] and he's not wrong. Primarily, there are two ways to interpret mias gynaikas andra: The first we'll call the literalist approach; second, the ...


10

The Greek is unambiguously referring to the church, not God. The word church (ἐκκλησία) is nominative case; the word God is in the genitive case (modifying the word church). The two words pillar (στῦλος) and ground (ἑδραίωμα ) are also nominative case, showing that they are in apposition to the church, not God. The Greek cases match each other when in an ...


9

I recently read an excellent paper on this subject by Cynthia Long Westfall: "The Meaning of αὐθεντέω in 1 Timothy 2.12", Journal of Greco-Roman Christianity and Judaism 10.7 (2014). It's a long paper (36 pages), but well-worth the read, IMO. I will briefly summarize the paper here. Westfall looks at 61 of the 317 known occurrences αὐθεντέω documented in ...


9

The term Paul used that is translated 'homosexual(s)' came directly from the two Greek words in the Greek translation of the Levitical passage (i.e. the Septuagint, which Paul quoted regularly) condemning homosexuality. Paul "coined" the compound word, but it did not come from a vacuum. The Septuagint's translation of the Levitical passage says, in effect, "...


8

It seems that many people want to quote the lexicon and be on their way, however in this case the lexicon does not tell the whole story. While the lexicon clearly indicates that the word Arsenokoites came to mean sodomy, it is not at all clear that this is how Paul meant it to be understood. Unfortunately, this word has no established context prior to Paul'...


6

In Genesis 3:17-19, God had cursed the ground because of the sin of Adam, and therefore the earth receives the disobedient curse. Thus the ground produces thorns and thistles and is thus "disobedient" to the cultivation of the land by Adam (mankind), whose sweat of the brow is the turmoil that results. The Apostle Paul accounts for the disturbances of the ...


6

Most commentators circle around the ideas that these are either Jewish genealogies or an unknown Gnostic type of genealogies that include angels. However there seems to be strong support that the pastorals speak of a particularly Jewish disturbance, as compared to say Colossians which may have been related to a mystic type of Jewish Gnosticism, somewhat ...


6

OP: Is 'many' necessarily exclusionary? No. The relevant bit of Heb 9:28 (NA-28 | ESV): οὕτως καὶ ὁ Χριστὸς ἅπαξ προσενεχθεὶς εἰς τὸ πολλῶν ἀνενεγκεῖν ἁμαρτίας so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many The contrast is made between Christ's once offering (prospherō) and the many whose sin he has taken upon himself (anapherō). ...


5

Is that because the original texts are indented too or something, so that it looks like a poem? No. The old manuscripts (at least as far as I am aware) do not indent poetry. However, since there are so many, I would advise looking up one of the projects that is digitizing the manuscripts so you can see them for yourself. Edit: you can view a number of ...


5

Because of an edit made in your post, it is important to note that money itself is not being called the root of all evils (nor all sorts of evils) in this passage, it is the love of money that is problematic, as the edit to the question has clarified. With that said, 1 Timothy 6:10 is a difficult text to translate. A literal translation of the text would ...


5

The Text: 1 Timothy 4:10 εἰς τοῦτο γὰρ κοπιῶμεν καὶ ὀνειδιζόμεθα, ὅτι ἠλπίκαμεν ἐπὶ θεῷ ζῶντι, ὅς ἐστιν σωτὴρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων, μάλιστα πιστῶν. Explanation μάλιστα is a superlative, like “chief” and “most”. Sometimes it may be used to indicate certainty (BDAG Lexicon). In this case, and the two following instances of μάλιστα in 1 Timothy, the ESV ...


5

One early lesson in Classical Greek class is that neuter plural nouns in Greek function as a "collective" in the singular, and therefore can take verbs and their forms in the singular. The Greek word in question in 1 Tim 3:4 is τέκνa, which is neuter plural. REFERENCE: Smyth, Herbert Weir (1918). Greek Grammar. Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 264.


5

The comment of the Apostle Paul that “The worker deserves his pay” appears to have been the prevailing interpretation of this verse according to the oral traditions of the Jews during the First Century and beyond. For example, in regard to this passage from Deuteronomy, the Jewish historian Flavius Josephus wrote the following in his compendium on the ...


5

At face value, it simply means “God wants everyone to be saved,” without exception. As for the verbs “want” and “will” as translations of the Greek verb θέλει, they are synonymous when used in this context. According to Oxford English Dictionary: “will” “want” Therefore, the verse can be translated as, Informal speech: Who wants everyone to be saved and ...


5

The word God (θεός - Theos) does not actually appear at all in the Greek text either verse 15 or either of the verses before or after it. The literal Greek of verse 15 probably reads closer to something like the NKJV: 14...that you keep [this] commandment without spot, blameless until our Lord Jesus Christ’s appearing, 15which He will manifest in His ...


4

The context of the passage of Paul's letter to Timothy continues... Prescribe and teach these things. 1 Tim 4:11 (NASB) Earlier in the same epistle Paul wrote that Christ Jesus gave Himself as a ransom "for all" (1 Tim 2:6). Therefore it is the desire of "God our Savior" that "all men" be saved (1 Tim 2:4 and 2 Pet 3:9). The Apostle John says that ...


4

Where the phrase is used Here are several places where the apostle Paul uses this phrase, usually translated by the ESV as "The statement is trustworthy": (1Tim 1:15 [GNT]) πιστὸς ὁ λόγος καὶ πάσης ἀποδοχῆς ἄξιος, ὅτι Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς ἦλθεν εἰς τὸν κόσμον ἁμαρτωλοὺς σῶσαι· ὧν πρῶτός εἰμι ἐγώ, (1Tim 3:1 [GNT]) Πιστὸς ὁ λόγος· εἴ τις ἐπισκοπῆς ὀρέγεται, καλοῦ ...


4

I can't speak to poetry in the NT, as I am not familiar with the distinctives of Greek poetry. But I would like to expand on @malachi1990's excellent answer by mentioning some of the characteristics that set Hebrew poetry apart from prose. English poetic text can often be identified by two primary linguistic characteristics: rhyme and rythm (or metre). The ...


4

1 Tim 1:4 μηδε προσεχειν μυθοις και γενεαλογιαις απεραντοις αιτινες ζητησεις παρεχουσιν μαλλον η οικοδομιαν θεου την εν πιστει (textus receptus) 1 Tim 1:4 μηδὲ προσέχειν μύθοις καὶ γενεαλογίαις ἀπεράντοις αἵτινες ἐκζητήσεις παρέχουσιν μᾶλλον ἢ οἰκονομίαν θεοῦ τὴν ἐν πίστει (critical text) Because of the one-letter difference between a "d" and an "n", ...


4

The Greek word is ἀνέγκλητος (anegklētos). The root word κλητός (klētos) means called or summoned and in classical Greek has a legal connotation (e.g. being "summoned to court"). The related verb ἐγκαλέω (egkaleō) means to bring charges or press charges, e.g.: Acts 19:31 If, then, Demetrius and his fellow craftsmen have a grievance against ...


4

There is a different meaning altogether. To arrive at that meaning we need to look elsewhere in Paul's writings. A great place to start is Romans, where Paul says, . . . God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do: sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh, in order that the just ...


4

There is a problem with the English translations of this verse. In the kJV it reads "they shall be saved in childbearing". The ASV says "saved through her child-bearing". The CEV says "will be saved by having children". And, the ERV says "will be saved in their work of having children". Does anyone stop to think ...


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