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Why is Paul adamant about the second coming of Christ during his lifetime but it didn't happen?

Disciples to be Martyred Jesus said with certainty that His disciples will be killed: “Then they will deliver you up to affliction, and will KILL you, and you will be hated by all nations because of ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
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12 votes
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Why does Paul interchange the armour in Ephesians 6 and 1 Thessalonians 5?

The two passages have slightly different contexts. Paul is writing to the Thessalonians in Chapter 5:1ff on the need to remain watchful because one does not know when the Lord will return (... the day ...
user33515's user avatar
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9 votes

Why is Paul adamant about the second coming of Christ during his lifetime but it didn't happen?

1 Possibility: Some people suggest that Paul was simply including himself among those “who are alive” because he was alive at that moment, but he didn’t mean to imply that he would necessarily live ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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6 votes

Why is Paul adamant about the second coming of Christ during his lifetime but it didn't happen?

1 Thessalonians 4 15 Indeed, we tell you this, on the word of the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will surely not precede those who have fallen asleep.16 For ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes

What is the proper translation of the verb “pisteuo” in 1 Thessalonians 4:14?

The verb is πιστευομεν TR (undisputed). ει γαρ πιστευομεν οτι ιησους απεθανεν ... [I Thess 4:14] If we believe that Jesus died ... [KJV] Bagster's Analytical Greek Lexicon states that this verb is ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes
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Who are the saints / holy ones in 1 Thessalonians 3:13 and 2 Thessalonians 1:3–12?

I will preface this with saying that I believe the saints referred to in 1 Thessalonians 3:13 is a reference to the angelic host. The reason is primarily two-fold: First, this is spoken of in clear ...
Jacob M.'s user avatar
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1 Thessalonians 4:3 grammatical analysis: accusative or nominative?

θέλημα is a neuter noun, and recall that the nominative and accusative forms of a neuter noun will always be identical. For a neuter noun, only context can tell us whether it is nominative or ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
4 votes

1 Thessalonians 4:3 grammatical analysis: accusative or nominative?

τοῦτο is either nominative or accusative; they are spelled the same. In this case, it is clearly functioning in the nominative because, as you said, its predicate nominative θέλημα is in apposition to ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
4 votes

What is the proper translation of the verb “pisteuo” in 1 Thessalonians 4:14?

When I began to edit your question for better formatting, I noticed that there were lemmas hidden from view because they were wrapped in <>. Oddly, these lemmas were not even visible in the edit ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
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Do we go up or down after being caught up in 1 Thessalonians 4:17?

For anyone that holds even a slightly literal view of the Bible, it's rather apparent that Jesus and the converted saints will then descend back to the Earth, where they will remain throughout the ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
4 votes

To whom do the words "an archangel's voice" refer to in 1 Thessalonians 4:16?

Two angels are named in scripture - Gabriel, twice, and Michael, five times - a total of seven times. Gabriel stands in the presence of God, Luke 1:19, and was sent from God, Luke 1:26. Thus he stands ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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Is 1 Thessalonians 3:11 an example of Granville Sharp's rule?

Daniel Wallace has set out the very strict rules required for the "Granville Sharp" rule to apply. To remove confusion among Sharp's six rules, Wallace gives this grammatical construction ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Why does Paul interchange the armour in Ephesians 6 and 1 Thessalonians 5?

Illustrations are used to make particular points at particular times. Circumstances may warrant slight adjustments, especially when if there is a considerable time gap (as there was here), and ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

Why is Paul adamant about the second coming of Christ during his lifetime but it didn't happen?

Paul developed and changed his stance in the course of his life, because in 2 Tim. 4:7 he already speaks about his imminent death without a reference to the Second Coming of Christ. But he is still ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
3 votes
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How can we harmonise 1 Thessalonians 4:16-17 and Hebrews 9 :27?

To enter the kingdom of God we must become spirit: John 3:5 Jesus answered, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. John 3:6 ...
Greater Church of God's user avatar
3 votes

Does 1 Thess 2:16 imply a dating of the letter near the destruction of 70AD?

Paul Referred to the Death of Agrippa I I suggest that Paul was looking back to the death of Herod Agrippa I, the last "King of the Jews." This makes better sense than his supposedly ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes
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In Colossians 3:5, how is greed (covetousness) an Idolatry?

In Colossians 3:5, how greed (covetousness) be idolatry? Colossians 3:5 (KJV): Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
3 votes

What does "with the voice of the archangel" mean in 1 Thessalonians 4:16?

Re: the reference in 1 Thessalonians 4:16. A "shout" is often associated with a military victory in the OT. The Bible Knowledge Commentary comments on Num. 23:21 that "the shout of the ...
Dan H.'s user avatar
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3 votes

What does "with the voice of the archangel" mean in 1 Thessalonians 4:16?

The problem with connecting Jesus to Archangel Michael are many. But the prince of the kingdom of Persia was withstanding me for twenty-one days; then behold, Michael, one of the chief princes, came ...
Pawel Musial's user avatar
3 votes

Do we go up or down after being caught up in 1 Thessalonians 4:17?

There is a Biblical answer to this. The confusion is due to not separating Israel from the joint-body of Christ. Israel has been held in abeyance until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in (Romans 11:...
Christian Doulos's user avatar
3 votes

Does 1 Thessalonians 5:10 rule out annihilism?

Those who do not believe in soul annihilation at physical death happily agree with annihilists that "sleep" in 1 Thess. 5:10 refers to the death of a person. There is no problem seeing the ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes
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1 Thess 5:9 vs Romans 5:9 - is this the same wrath?

For a complete list of the all the 36 occurrences of ὀργή (orgé) in the NT, see https://biblehub.com/greek/strongs_3709.htm The uses of ὀργή (orgé = wrath) in the NT can be most simply divided as ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Why is Paul adamant about the second coming of Christ during his lifetime but it didn't happen?

The Bible has always spoken of the Second Coming as an imminent event, one that Christians of all ages are to be ready for within their lifetimes. A few examples: Genesis 3:15 KJV And I will put ...
Jonathan Cast's user avatar
2 votes

How should 2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 be interpreted?

I've spent some time wondering about this passage also, and will share my current exegesis, without trying to say any other answer is wrong. There may be many interpretations of this dense passage. ...
Robert's user avatar
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2 votes

Is 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16 a failed prophecy?

Bart D. Ehrman says, in Forged, page 106, that Paul thought the end was coming in his lifetime. Paul wrote to the Christians in Thessalonica because some of them had become disturbed over the death of ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
2 votes
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What afflictions did the church in Thessalonica suffer?

Paul does not tell us of the afflictions that the church at Thessalonica suffered, other than to compare them closely to the afflictions suffered by Jewish Christians in Judea. I could provide an ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar

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