7

The Liddell-Scott-Jones dictionary (Ninth Edition, p. 421) states unambiguously that the phrase διδακτοὶ τοῦ θεοῦ should be translated as "taught by God." They also reference Isaiah 54:13. In Classical Ancient Greek, verbs that denote knowing, learning, etc. take the genitive for what we would consider their direct objects. This would tend to support the ...


6

For anyone that holds even a slightly literal view of the Bible, it's rather apparent that Jesus and the converted saints will then descend back to the Earth, where they will remain throughout the Millennium: Behold, He is coming with clouds, and every eye will see Him … Revelation 1:7 (NKJV) And in that day His feet will stand on the Mount of Olives … — ...


5

The verb is πιστευομεν TR (undisputed). ει γαρ πιστευομεν οτι ιησους απεθανεν ... [I Thess 4:14] If we believe that Jesus died ... [KJV] Bagster's Analytical Greek Lexicon states that this verb is the first person, plural, present indicative. [BAGL (1973 ed.) p 326.] Being the first person plural it has to be translated 'we believe'. It cannot be ...


4

According to the Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible (with judicious editing by me), the Greek phrase from which we get the English phrase "to possess one's own vessel" is probably better translated "how to acquire (get for himself) his own vessel"; that is, that each Christian man should have his own wife so as to avoid fornication (see 1 ...


4

I agree with the previous answer by Joseph and will seek to reiterate it by looking at the immediate context of 1 Thess. 4. In 1 Thess. 4:13 Paul refers to "those who are asleep" and is simply trying to encourage them since it seems that some of them were grieving. They were under the misconception that the dead would not experience the coming of the Lord. ...


4

The passage 1 Thess. 4:14-18 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep in Jesus. 15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend ...


4

τοῦτο is either nominative or accusative; they are spelled the same. In this case, it is clearly functioning in the nominative because, as you said, its predicate nominative θέλημα is in apposition to the nominative ὁ ἁγιασμὸς.


4

θέλημα is a neuter noun, and recall that the nominative and accusative forms of a neuter noun will always be identical. For a neuter noun, only context can tell us whether it is nominative or accusative. I would agree with your above analysis that, in 1 Thessalonains 4:3, it is nominative. The same might be said of τοῦτο. It is neuter, so nominative and ...


4

I will preface this with saying that I believe the saints referred to in 1 Thessalonians 3:13 is a reference to the angelic host. The reason is primarily two-fold: First, this is spoken of in clear language elsewhere. Matthew 25:31 “When the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the holy angels with Him, then He will sit on the throne of His glory. Mark 8:...


4

When I began to edit your question for better formatting, I noticed that there were lemmas hidden from view because they were wrapped in <>. Oddly, these lemmas were not even visible in the edit history. I was only able to see them when I actually clicked edit:1 Whatever Bible version you are using, it is not displaying the actual Greek text as found ...


3

I'm not sure there is a contradiction between the two letters, in 1 Thess 5:1 Paul says "But concerning the times and the seasons, brethren, you have no need that I should write to you." (NKJV) in 5:4 he says, "But you, brethren, are not in darkness, so that this Day should overtake you as a thief." and 5:6 says, "Therefore let us not sleep, as others do, ...


3

To enter the kingdom of God we must become spirit: John 3:5 Jesus answered, "Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit. John 3:7 Do not marvel that I said to you, 'You must be born again.' ...


3

Do we go "up" or "down" after being caught up in 1 Thessalonians 4:17? Answer: No saved soul will ever return to earth. We will step out of finite time into Christ's eternal Presence: He will never set foot on planet earth again. With respect, I am responding to this from an amillennial perspective with the recognition that much of what ...


3

There is a Biblical answer to this. The confusion is due to not separating Israel from the joint-body of Christ. Israel has been held in abeyance until the fullness of the Gentiles comes in (Romans 11:25). During this not- prophesied period of time, Gentiles are streaming into the church with a small remnant of Jews.This period of time, called an ...


2

In the Christian New Testament, there were false teachers who had taught (during the First Century at the time of Paul) that the resurrection had already taken place. 2 Timothy 2:17-18 (NASB) 17 and their talk will spread like gangrene. Among them are Hymenaeus and Philetus, 18 men who have gone astray from the truth saying that the resurrection has ...


2

The prepositional phrase ὑπὸ τοῦ θεου (hypo tou theou) immediately follows ἀδελφοὶ ἠγαπημένοι (adelphoi ēgapēmenoi), and so the most natural reading (and that followed by virtually all modern translations) is "brothers beloved by God" (in fact I am not aware of any translations outside of the N/KJV that translate it any other way). "The election" is followed ...


2

I've spent some time wondering about this passage also, and will share my current exegesis, without trying to say any other answer is wrong. There may be many interpretations of this dense passage. Background First, let's understand the background. The Church in Thessalonica was worried that the Day of the Lord had already come, and they were left behind (...


2

It appears to actually be referring to those believers in Jesus who have died. This is supported by it being directly after 1 Thess. 4:13, which states Brothers and sisters, we do not want you to be uninformed about those who sleep in death, so that you do not grieve like the rest of mankind, who have no hope.


2

An interesting question “but wrath has come upon them to the uttermost.” [NKJV] is the most difficult statement in this passage to understand and is open to several interpretations. In Paul's writings God’s wrath is predominantly an eschatological event. Evil done by Jews or Gentiles earns God’s wrath, which will be executed on the day of wrath, (Rom 2:5). ...


2

This passage may not be original. Paul was a proud Jew, yet we see in 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16 that he castigates the Jews, speaking of them in the third pary, in spite of being a Jew himself: For you, brothers, have become imitators of the churches of God that are in Judea in Christ Jesus. For you suffer the same things from your compatriots as they ...


2

In simple terms it means "do not put out ". For example if we put water on a fire, then the flame goes out. What this is referring to is "Do not block or do away with the spirit." Another example is the spirit is the flame of a candle. If we hide the candle then we are "getting rid of the light".(God) So it means basically do not hide the existence of ...


2

The "Spirit" in question is Holy Spirit, and the paradox is that it is impossible for humans to quench or in any way harm the Holy Spirit, who is God (Acts 5:4), any more than humans can harm the physical sun (at least by any technological means available for humans presently). But, then what does it mean that there is a risk that we may "...


2

Paul does not tell us of the afflictions that the church at Thessalonica suffered, other than to compare them closely to the afflictions suffered by Jewish Christians in Judea. I could provide an informed opinion on this, based on the parallels, but should first of all take into account that most biblical scholars believe 1 Thessalonians 2:13-16 to be an ...


2

It's very interesting paralell, but I think that connections between these two texts are not so close to interpret it as an allusion. In a nutshell - in my opinion Paul in 1Thess 4:15-17 is not reffering to one particular passage from OT, but to some universal imagination of theophany which elements are present in many places of OT and apocalyptic literature....


2

It is possible that Hebrews is a general statement to which 1 Thessalonians is a specific, unusual exception. The Hebrews statement is still true for nearly all men.


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