Hot answers tagged

6

Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels? Did the demons worry about being imprisoned by Jesus? Was there a prison for demons at Peter's time. The apostle Peter identifies these spirits as those who had “once been disobedient when the patience of God was waiting in Noah’s days.” (1 Peter. 3:20) Clearly, Peter was referring to ...


6

The preponderance of the evidence appears to show that this is a reference to Rome. John AT Robinson provided a helpful summary of supporting evidence that "Babylon" is a reference to Rome. (see p. 136 here) The 'greetings from her who dwells in Babylon, chosen by God like you' (5.13) is almost universally agreed to be a disguise for the church in ...


5

For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast crowned him with glory and honour. (Psalm 8:5, KJV) Man was made "a little lower than the angels," and Christ was a man. The Bible's teaching is that the man Jesus was not God. God is not a man (see Numbers 23:19; 1 Samuel 15:29); but Jesus was a man, and the Son of Man (see Matthew ...


4

This question incorrectly assumes that there is a Sarah 1.0 that was meek and obedient and a Sarah 2.0 was outspoken and did not obey him. Sarah obeyed Abraham and called him Lord throughout her married life as was the norm in that time period. But obeying Abraham does not mean that the relationship was based on slavery. She let her needs and be known, and ...


4

Liddell & Scott reference the Greek word makran in order to explain molis, the idea of being 'a great way off'. Thayer translates molis as 'with difficulty' or 'not readily'. Luke uses the word in connection with a nautical difficulty related to wind conditions when sailing under Crete, they hardly (molis) passed it. But there is nothing in Paul's words ...


4

Given that Peter starts his letter by addressing God's scattered chosen ones (the elect, vss.1-2), who have experienced the sanctifying work of the Spirit to be obedient to Jesus Christ, he and they are the ones who have been given "new birth". They are the "us" who have been given new birth. The Companion Bible helpfully translates this ...


4

The word μώλωψ in 1 Peter 2:24 is a hapax legomenon, and, according to BDAG means: welt, wale, bruise, wound, caused by blows ... from the Attic ... "the swelling from a blow" Further, the word as we find it in the text of 1 Peter 2:24 is indeed dative singular. Thus, the text should be strictly rendered something like: ... by whose bruise you ...


4

Isaiah 28:16ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἐμβαλῶ εἰς τὰ θεμέλια Σιὼν λίθον πολυτελῆ ἐκλεκτὸν ἀκρογωνιαῖον, ἔντιμον,εἰς τὰ θεμέλια αὐτῆς,καὶ ὁ πιστεύων ἐπ’ αὐτῷ οὐ μὴ καταισχυνθῇ. 1 Peter 2:6Ἰδοὺ τίθημι ἐν Σιὼν λίθον ἀκρογωνιαῖον, ἐκλεκτόν, ἔντιμονκαὶ ὁ πιστεύων ἐπ᾿ αὐτῷ οὐ μὴ καταισχυνθῇ. Unless I'm missing something, there does not seem to be any relevant or meaningful ...


4

“Pride” | זָדוֹן Zadon is a selfish act of vanity - falsely reflecting on accomplishments, as if [you alone] created something good. [Arrogance] is a behavior blinding humans, [unable to recognize the source of all our achievements was YHVH your God] the Source which made all things possible. [Deuteronomy 8:17-18] and you will say to yourself, "My ...


3

Which one is better for literal translation For a strict literal translation, I agree with the ESV translator who didn't add the word "now" as is obvious from the original Greek. But this is pushing the exegetical task to the reader, needing one to consult a commentary such as Crossway's own ESV Study Bible which has this on 1 Pet 4:6 (emphasis ...


2

Babylon as a Codeword for Rome St. Peter appears to be using code for Rome (where according to tradition he was martyred, as with St. Paul: cf. Acts 23:11), inasmuch as Rome was the center of Christian persecution, and would be for centuries to come), and there was every reason to conceal the location of the leader of the Christian Church (as tradition makes ...


2

There is no "now" in the Greek. A more literal translation is: Because of this also the gospel was preached to the dead, so that they were judged according to men in the flesh, but they may live according to God in the spirit. The bold is just two words: εὐηγγελίσθη νεκροῖς, or "evangelizing the dead", or "preaching the gospel to ...


2

Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will Yes it is Similarly, how can God know beforehand who are going to be the elect if they can make use of their free will and not obey the call? Are they conditionally elect then? Or is their election unconditional? The understanding of these texts depends upon whether they ...


2

What this post is not This is not a positive argument demonstrating the existence of free will. I believe that is a question better suited to: Philosophy - showing that it is irrational to believe you do not have free will Theology - showing that free will is a gift from God and an essential part of His plan What this post is This is a negative argument ...


2

The foreknowledge of God and the human free will of mankind is a mystery that cannot be fully explained. Here is my pathetic attempt using an earthly illustration. A very good experienced classroom teacher, within a month or so of the start of the academic year already knows who will pass and fail the subject and even what mark each student will achieve. ...


2

Yes, I believe that this implication is there. God never removes from us His most sacred gift to us: the freedom of choice. There is no such thing as a forced salvation, and no such thing as a salvation from which one cannot later turn away. Consider the parable of the ten virgins (Matthew 25:1-13): All ten went out to meet the bridegroom; but only half ...


2

First, we need to follow Biblical rules for interpretation, including looking at context, comparing scripture with scripture, and letting the Bible interpret itself (all part of proper hermeneutics). We need to set aside our preconceptions or opinions and see if the Bible can explain this for us itself. To get more of the context, let's go back a few verses ...


2

We need to look at the understanding behind the question. You say ...[snip] “... from the Law humans in Christ are released from keeping?”. And you quote this verse from Romans ... ROMANS 7:6 But now we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by, so that we should serve in the newness of the Spirit and not in the oldness of the ...


2

Note the very important opening instruction in 1 Peter 3:1 Wives, in the same way, submit yourselves to your husbands This is a direct reference to the passage before about all people submitting to one another especially, "to the Shepherd and Overseer of your souls." It is parallel to Paul's instruction in Eph 5:21-28 about submitting to one ...


2

What does "new birth" refer to in 1 Peter 1:3? Answer: Our "new birth" occurs precisely according to Romans 6:3-4. Unfortunately, mere hope avails nothing. We simply cannot rely solely on the words of 1 Peter 1:3 to understand this fact. Nonetheless, suppose we repeat the verse cited in the OP: 1 Peter 1:3: "Blessed be the God and ...


2

What does "new birth" refer to in 1 Peter 1:3? Peter's letter (written circa 62-64 AD) was written to the "faithful" Christians of the day, scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia who are chosen ... (1:1), in the time of Emperor Nero. This letter proved to be most timely in view of the storm of persecution ...


2

What does "new birth" refer to in 1 Peter 1:3? Both Epistles of Peter are written to the chosen ones, those with heavenly hope:{1 Peter 1:4, Imperishable life in heaven, 2 Peter 1:4 Partakers of the divine nature. 1 Peter 1:3 Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! In his great mercy, he has given us new birth into a living hope ...


2

As Tony Chan has pointed out, both Hebrew and Greek use different words that are both often translated as "blessed" בָּרוּךְ יְהוָה (barukh YHWH) mostly translated as ευλογητος κυριος (eulogètos Kyrios) NIV translates it as "Praise be to the Lord" Both בָּרוּךְ and ευλογητος are mostly used for men praising God (e.g. Ps 41:14 = LXX 40:13),...


2

Even a pagan centurion acknowledges that Jesus Christ is master of all heavenly powers, comparing His authority to those powers to his own authority over his regiment of soldiers (Matthew 8:9). And if He is not, eternally with the Father, the Master of all spiritual creatures, then how does He give power out of His own sovereign authority ("I give you ...


2

Note the textual variation in the Dead Sea Isaiah scroll. 16 a 𝔔a מיסד 𝔔b יוסד α´σ´θ´ (𝔖𝔗) θεμελιῶν cf 𝔊𝔙, l יֹסֵד || b > pc Mss 𝔊, dl -- Weil, G. E., Elliger, K., & Rudolph, W., Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft. (1997). Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (5. Aufl., rev., p. 715). Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft. A translation of the Hebrew: ...


2

The meaning of the words "proud" and "humble" in James 4:6 and 2 Peter 5:5 according to BDAG: "Proud" ὑπερήφανος (huperephanos) = literally, "overshine" arrogant, haughty, proud, eg, Luke 1:51, Rom 1:30, 2 Tim 3:2, James 4:6, 1 Peter 5:5. [In all these cases, this characteristic is negative.] "Humble" ...


2

The crucifixion of Jesus represented multiple fulfilment’s. His death needed to by account of the Mosaic Law - and although this could have been via any means, i.e. stoning - it couldn’t be via any other means other than crucifixion - because this was prophesied. But this to one side, because you are asking about the lashing, that is, the treatment before ...


2

Peter was matching the historic evens of the Crucifixion to Isa. 53. 4 οὗτος τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἡμῶν φέρει καὶ περὶ ἡμῶν ὀδυνᾶται, καὶ ἡμεῖς ἐλογισάμεθα αὐτὸν εἶναι ἐν πόνῳ καὶ ἐν πληγῇ καὶ ἐν κακώσει. 5 αὐτὸς δὲ ἐτραυματίσθη διὰ τὰς ἀνομίας ἡμῶν καὶ μεμαλάκισται διὰ τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἡμῶν, παιδεία εἰρήνης ἡμῶν ἐπʼ αὐτόν, τῷ μώλωπι αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς ἰάθημεν. (Isa. 53:4–5, ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible