15
votes
Accepted
Does the idea of being "born again" have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?
Nicodemus Should Have Known from the Old Testament
That the Old Testament is the source of the doctrine is confirmed by Christ Himself, for Nicodemus was supposed to have known these things. A ...
- 19.7k
10
votes
1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown". How was he then preexistant?
No contradiction
There is not really anything contradictory about stating it this way just because Christ is understood to be pre-existent.1 This can be understood looking at it from two perspectives....
- 19.7k
9
votes
What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says "baptism now saves you"
What does the text say?
This verse is fairly clear: baptism now saves you. However, there are two things worth noting:
For the early church, faith and baptism were never intentionally separated. ...
- 5,198
8
votes
Accepted
Why doesn't St. Paul use LOVE for each of the members, when he lays out the Rules for a Christian Households [Col 3:18-20]?
Marriage isn't 50-50. It's both parties giving 100%. Dr. Emerson Eggerichs addresses the differences in the commands extensively in his book Love and Respect and on his website, most recently in a ...
- 21.9k
7
votes
Does the idea of being "born again" have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?
The origin of the Christian teaching of the ‘new birth’ is at most partly an outworking of the Hebrew concept of a resurrection, it uses words in Greek that can barely be traced in other literature ...
- 12.1k
6
votes
Accepted
What does "suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin" in 1 Peter 4:1 mean?
To answer the question I think we need to need to consider the whole verse and its context.
Our English translations begin with “therefore” (οὖν), which suggests that Peter is drawing a conclusion ...
- 3,617
6
votes
Accepted
What did Sarah mean by calling Abraham her "lord"?
My Hebrew is basic, but I do read Greek.
Sarah refers to Abraham as her kurios in Genesis 18:12 in the Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament.) Yet she does not address him directly with that word
in ...
- 232
6
votes
What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?
The preponderance of the evidence appears to show that this is a reference to Rome.
John AT Robinson provided a helpful summary of supporting evidence that "Babylon" is a reference to Rome. (...
- 15.1k
6
votes
Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels?
Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels?
Did the demons worry about being imprisoned by Jesus? Was there a prison for demons at
Peter's time.
The apostle Peter ...
- 13k
5
votes
What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?
The typical view that Rome is both the harlot and the beast has several flaws and is not scriptural.
First, the name Babylon was on the forehead of the harlot that sat on top of the beast.
Rev. 17:3,
...
- 8,716
5
votes
Accepted
Why does the apostle Peter misquote Isaiah 28:16 in [1 Peter 2:6]?
Isaiah 28:16ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἐμβαλῶ εἰς τὰ θεμέλια Σιὼν λίθον πολυτελῆ ἐκλεκτὸν ἀκρογωνιαῖον, ἔντιμον,εἰς τὰ θεμέλια αὐτῆς,καὶ ὁ πιστεύων ἐπ’ αὐτῷ οὐ μὴ καταισχυνθῇ.
1 Peter 2:6Ἰδοὺ τίθημι ἐν Σιὼν λίθον ...
4
votes
In 1 Peter 1:2, why is "of blood" in the genitive?
The word αἵματος (blood) is in the genitive case due to its subordination to the preceding noun, ῥαντισμὸν (sprinkling), a relationship reasonably well represented by the English "of" (i.e "sprinkling ...
- 25.8k
4
votes
Translation of 1 Peter 3:21 and baptism
Not exactly. The better translation is in Young's:
"20 who sometime disbelieved, when once the long-suffering of God did wait, in days of Noah -- an ark being preparing -- in which few, that is, ...
- 8,716
4
votes
Accepted
Is Peter implying that the righteous can lose their salvation in 1 Peter 4:17-18?
Liddell & Scott reference the Greek word makran in order to explain molis, the idea of being 'a great way off'.
Thayer translates molis as 'with difficulty' or 'not readily'.
Luke uses the word in ...
- 26.7k
4
votes
Why must Women mimic silent שָׂרַ֣י Sarai, but not the outspoken שָׂרָ֖ה Sarah in [1 Peter 3:1-6]?
This question incorrectly assumes that there is a Sarah 1.0 that was meek and obedient and a Sarah 2.0 was outspoken and did not obey him.
Sarah obeyed Abraham and called him Lord throughout her ...
- 6,855
4
votes
Do Peter's words in 1 Peter 2:24 suggest that 'wound' would be a better word than 'bruise' in Genesis 3:15?
The word μώλωψ in 1 Peter 2:24 is a hapax legomenon, and, according to BDAG means:
welt, wale, bruise, wound, caused by blows ... from the Attic ... "the swelling from a blow"
Further, the ...
- 74.4k
4
votes
Accepted
What does "new birth" refer to in 1 Peter 1:3?
Given that Peter starts his letter by addressing God's scattered chosen ones (the elect, vss.1-2), who have experienced the sanctifying work of the Spirit to be obedient to Jesus Christ, he and they ...
- 12.9k
4
votes
Accepted
1 Peter 3:22 If Jesus is God, wouldn't the angels be subject unto him already?
For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels, and hast
crowned him with glory and honour. (Psalm 8:5, KJV)
Man was made "a little lower than the angels," and Christ was a man. The ...
- 5,892
4
votes
Why does God oppose the proud but give grace to the humble? 1 Peter 5:5-7; James 4:6-10
“Pride” | זָדוֹן Zadon is a selfish act of vanity - falsely reflecting on accomplishments, as if [you alone] created something good. [Arrogance] is a behavior blinding humans, [unable to recognize the ...
- 7,721
3
votes
1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was "foreknown". How was he then preexistant?
The question implies that that law of non-contradiction is not well-understood. The Un-begotten Only Son and the Only Begotten Son are one and the same.
John calls him the Word (Joh 1.1, 1Jo 5:7 ) ...
- 6,450
3
votes
Why doesn't St. Paul use LOVE for each of the members, when he lays out the Rules for a Christian Households [Col 3:18-20]?
Another perspective on this issue: why should Paul have counselled "love" in each of the three cases of domestic relationship in Colossians 3:18-20 (wives to husbands, husbands to wives, children to ...
- 24.5k
3
votes
What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says "baptism now saves you"
John says in his first letter, in verses 7 and 8, "For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement."
It is obvious that we are saved by the ...
- 147
3
votes
What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says "baptism now saves you"
In 1 Peter 3:21, the Greek word ἀντίτυπον ( antitypon) reveals that the water that saved the eight souls in the Great Deluge is an antitype of the water baptism that saves. This means that both the ...
- 5,789
3
votes
Does the idea of being "born again" have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?
The Hebrew Bible speaks of "new birthing" involving water, which then later carries into the Christian New Testament. Specifically, water in the Hebrew Bible removes the contamination of death, and ...
- 16.2k
3
votes
Who did Jesus preach to in 1 Peter 3:19?
In addition to 3:19, we also have 4:6:
For this is why the gospel was preached even to the dead, that though judged in the flesh like men, they might live in the spirit like God.1
The preacher is ...
- 9,868
3
votes
Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
1 Peter 3:3 ὧν ἔστω οὐχ ὁ ἔξωθεν ἐμπλοκῆς τριχῶν καὶ περιθέσεως
χρυσίων ἢ ἐνδύσεως ἱματίων κόσμος (1Pe 3:3 BGT)
A literal translation of the Greek would be “Let not your adornment be external—...
- 3,617
3
votes
Accepted
Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?
This is considered a textual variation. We have no explanation as to why. It appears that his Greek text had τῆς ἀγάπης instead of τῆς ἀληθείας.
1:22 ἀληθείας {A}
After ἀληθείας the Textus ...
- 16.7k
Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible