5 votes

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

The answer to this question about the need for propitiation/expiation as suggested in 1 John 2:2 is found in the original curse as recorded in Genesis Gen 3:17, 18 - And to Adam He said: “Because you ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?

In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion? In order to answer this question appropriately, we probably need to take from v 6 thru to and including v ...
Olde English's user avatar
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4 votes

Why does the King James Bible have the words "of God" in 1 John 3:16 whereas most translations do not have the words "of God" included?

The addition "of God" in the text of the KJV is highlighted as an added text because it italicized. It is absent in the Greek and thus should not be there. Here is the literal translation ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Is there any way to know which Bible version is correct about 1 John 5:7-8?

Is there any way to know which Bible version is correct about 1 John 5:7-8? Short Answer: The absence of the Comma Johanneum in the vast majority of Greek manuscripts, including important ones like ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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3 votes

How are we to test the spirits?

To "try the spirits" means to test or discern the spirits to determine whether they are of God. So the question is, how do we do this? The context of this verse is that there are false ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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3 votes
Accepted

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

The World The only two New Testament uses of ἱλασμός, propitiation are in First John. He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. (2:2) In ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
3 votes

What does “the evil one does not touch him” mean in 1 John 5:18?

"The evil one" here is understood (without contest) to mean Satan the devil. Three times in that epistle, John refers to Satan as (variously) 'the evil one' or 'the wicked one'. His first ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes
Accepted

What is the difference between walking in darkness and sinning according to 1 John?

Sin is not the delineating factor between those who walk in the darkness and those who walk in the light. As John himself tells us, we all have sin. If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ...
Nhi's user avatar
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2 votes

What does “the evil one does not touch him” mean in 1 John 5:18?

1 John is concerned with false teachings about who Jesus is and what it means to be a believer. In 1 John 5:18-20 John comes to the end of his letter with three things a believer can know for sure. A ...
David D's user avatar
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2 votes

What does “the evil one does not touch him” mean in 1 John 5:18?

What do we know? We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, this according to 1 John 3:9, "No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; ...
Mr. Bond's user avatar
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2 votes

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

This answer will focus on the idea of the redemption of creation in the Book of Romans, also mentioned by @Dottard: Romans 8 19 For creation awaits with eager expectation the revelation of the sons ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes

Can "we confess our sins" (1 John 1:9) in a general manner?

There are several points to note about the state of human sinfulness: All are sinful, Rom 3:10-23, 1 John 1:8, 10, Ps 51:5, etc. The human condition is so desperate that many times we do not even ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

1 John 1:7—Does "fellowship with one another" require walking in the light?

Of note is how the first chapter in John's first letter starts by speaking about how the Word of God became flesh. He and all the other Christians back then had looked upon, handled, and heard the ...
Anne's user avatar
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1 vote

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

Outline of Biblical Usage an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order, government ornament, decoration, adornment, i.e. the arrangement of the stars, 'the heavenly hosts', as the ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

Adam originated from the dust of the ground. ( Gen. 2:7 & Gen. 3:19 ). Therefore the curse of God directed toward Adam was poured out on the earth. Gen. 3:17 And unto Adam he said, Because thou ...
RHPclass79's user avatar
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1 vote

1 John 1:7—Does "fellowship with one another" require walking in the light?

Question: Does fellowship with one another require walking in the light Summary: Separating fellowship from walking in the light is like trying to separate water from wet. Walking in the light is an ...
David D's user avatar
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1 vote
Accepted

1 John 1:7—Does "fellowship with one another" require walking in the light?

The operative word in 1 John 1:7 is the first word in the Greek, viz, ἐάν (ean) = "if", a conjunction of conditionality. Put as simply as possible, it is used in construction very familiar ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

How are we to test the spirits?

Is this, perhaps, the function of the gift of "discernment of spirits", mentioned in 1 Corinthians ch12 v10; "the ability to distinguish between different kinds of spirits"? The ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
1 vote

How does God give life to a Christian who sins according to 1 John 5:16?

Let us be very clear about what 1 John 5:16 is saying (BLB): If anyone should see his brother sinning a sin not unto death, he shall ask, and He will give him life, to those sinning not unto death. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference between walking in darkness and sinning according to 1 John?

While walking in darkness is associated with sin, John referred to where one's fellowship is. In general sin is doing what is wrong while walking in darkness is a lifestyle in intimate friendship ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference between walking in darkness and sinning according to 1 John?

The teaching of 1 John 1:6 & 7 must be viewed in the light of that which follows: 1 John 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference between walking in darkness and sinning according to 1 John?

These verses do not say that we can walk in the Light and still sin, but that we can say that we fellowship with Him and yet walk in darkness. A person can fellowship with the church as Christ's body ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Can "we confess our sins" (1 John 1:9) in a general manner?

It will be make clear when reading verse 8-10 together 8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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1 vote

Who is the True God and Eternal Life?

Answer Whichever way one looks at the verse, the straight answer to the question is that the true God and eternal life in this particular verse is the Son of God, Jesus Christ. Part I - Hermeneutics A ...
Nephesh Roi's user avatar
1 vote

Who is the True God and Eternal Life?

I've just written a blog post on this question but will just highlight a couple of points that I think need further comment after reading the existing answers. The majority of New Testament scholars ...
Thomas Farrar's user avatar
1 vote

How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

This question makes a very important link between Jesus’ words here, and how some claiming to be Christians turn out to actually be antinomian. ‘Anti’ is against, and ‘nomos’ is law. So, an antinomian ...
Anne's user avatar
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1 vote

How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

John's lawless person is someone who is not a true child of God. Such a person is recognized because he does not behave righteously and does not love his fellow Christian. Matthew's lawless person is ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

How are we to test the spirits?

Is the "spirit" in question in line with what we have learned in the true Word of God, authored by the One true Spirit? Is it "preaching another Jeses", or a gospel other than ...
Mark Vestal's user avatar
1 vote

In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?

“Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35.” I would agree. The clear reference to ...
Nhi's user avatar
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