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14 votes
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Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

There are several matters here that are crucial - First, 1 John 1:8 should never be read without also reading 1 John 1:10 - 8 If we say we have no sin [noun], we deceive ourselves, and the truth is ...
Dottard's user avatar
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10 votes
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To whom was the letter 1 John written?

In the Introduction to 1 John in the NIV Study Bible, Donald W. Burdick writes: Author: Unlike most NT letters, 1 John does not tell us who the author is. The earliest identification of him ...
Lesley's user avatar
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9 votes

What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing "Word" in 1 John 1:1?

I don't think it's a mistake in the NASB. The identity of ὁ λόγος ("the word") in 1 John 1:1 is puzzling and may have been intentionally ambiguous. To make matters more complicated, the syntax of vv. ...
Susan's user avatar
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9 votes

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

The seeming contradiction is from not paying careful attention to the verb tenses; the continuous action of the present tense in particular. 1 John 1:8-10 isn't so much of an issue in an English ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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8 votes
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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
7 votes
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

The considerations here are much the same as those I discussed in a previous answer. I have attempted to develop those ideas and tailor it to the passage in question. [I]s it incorrect to read ...
Susan's user avatar
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7 votes
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?

Discussion of the Neuter Gender James L. Boyer wrote an article that is helpful here, "Relative Clauses in the Greek New Testament: A Statistical Study," Grace Theological Journal 9 (Fall 1988): 233-...
ScottS's user avatar
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7 votes
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Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Here is the Greek text of the two verses you ask about: 1 John 4.14 καὶ ἡμεῖς τεθεάμεθα καὶ μαρτυροῦμεν ὅτι ὁ πατὴρ ἀπέσταλκεν τὸν υἱὸν σωτῆρα τοῦ κόσμου. Luke 2.29-30 Νῦν ἀπολύεις τὸν δοῦλόν σου, ...
Peter Kirkpatrick's user avatar
7 votes

What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?

I think that the answer is just a few verses above: 1 John 3:7-8 Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous. He who sins is of the ...
Brainardo's user avatar
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6 votes

Is "God is light" more than metaphor in 1 John 1:5?

“Light” has different semantics: in the direct sense, it is a principle of a physical visibility for human eyes that has its source in a luminous, light-producing object, like the sun, for example. In ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
5 votes

Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Interlinear text is a helpful thing, but also very limited - it translates each word individually and unfortunately don't help much with understanding a syntax, which is crucial thing. John 4:14: καὶ ...
Michał Pawikowski's user avatar
5 votes

What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

The answer to the OP's question is at the other end of the same sentence which begins in 1 John 1:1 and continues (in the Greek) until the end of V3. The "that" is actually identified as: &...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes
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In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?

εν, which means in It does. It also means one. The Greek text reads: οι τρεις εν εισιν If we are to translate εν as in, then it would render as: the three in are which makes little sense, ...
5 votes

Is "God is light" more than metaphor in 1 John 1:5?

In him was life and the life was the light of men. John 1:4. It is the life of the divine being which lights the consciousness of the created creature. If not, the creature has only darkness within ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes

In this particular verse and context, what does “overcome the world” mean here in 1 John 5:4? Sin? Godless system?

Given that this present world is a sinful world, then the overcomers in the context of verse 4 have overcome sin and they have overcome the world. One cannot be done without the other, really. They ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes
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Identity of the "we" in 1 John 1:1?

[OP] Who is the "we" in 1 John 1:1? A decent case can be made that the "we" of 1 John 1 is "editorial"; that is, it is a rhetorical device to refer to the author's self. This usage, related to the "...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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4 votes

Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13

Tau's answer explains why the antichrist may be synonymous with the man of lawlessness and the beast described in Revelation 13. I would add to that as the question also asks: Are there any reasons ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
4 votes
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The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature

OP's interest in the Johannine "knowing all things" passages requires attention to the theme of "knowledge" more broadly in gJohn in particular, which also bears on the language of 1 John, although ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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4 votes

To whom was the letter 1 John written?

I think the short answer to your question is that either it was written (a) to the greater Church in general and not any specific local Church; or (b) to Parthians (Persians), resident either in Asia ...
user33515's user avatar
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4 votes
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In 1 John 5:1 does "the one" refer to "God's child" or to "God's children"?

The Greek behind this text is as follows (Received Text - Stephens, Elzevir, Beza and Scrivener all read exactly the same) : πας ο πιστευων οτι ιησους εστιν ο χριστος εκ του θεου γεγεννηται και πας ο ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes
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In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ ("by this") an instrumental dative or locative dative?

Τουτω in I John 2:3 is the prepositional dative, that is to say the word is in the dative form simply because the preposition εν is being used. Τουτω could not be expressed in Greek in any other way (...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

It’s very hard to explain this when you think from a Greek mindset, G d is ONE which to our ears sounds like singular. The passage comes from the Hebrew and it reads G d is echâd. But echâd is one in ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
4 votes

Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?

I struggle to see a direct link between 1 John 4:18 and Rev 21:8 other than a single word (in the KJV and its imitators). In 1 John 4:18, "fear" and its cognate relatives occur four times as: Φόβος (...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the emphasis of προς in 1 John 2:1 ('with' the Father)?

First, I would agree with the OP's analysis of the text of 1 John 2:1. However, I would not divorce it from that which comes before: 1 John 1:8-2:2 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

In medieval philosophy, scholastics, there was a category of causa finalis, the final cause, which semantically is the same as the final purpose, for the vision of the final purpose is the cause of ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
4 votes

The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV

ὁ πονηρὸς οὐχ ἅπτεται αὐτοῦ (in 1 John 5:18, NA28) ἅπτεται is present, middle, indicative, third person, singular. According to BDAG, the meaning of the middle form is touch. The full details in BDAG ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes
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The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV

The ESV is ‘drawing’ from the OT. It is ‘Hebraic thinking’. In the OT, under special conditions, spiritual ‘entities’ could interact’ with ‘man’. This was called ‘touching’, or more expanded, the ...
Dave's user avatar
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4 votes

Does it follow from John 17:3 that knowing God alone cannot give eternal life? What then is the need for the adjectives "The only true"?

There is only one true God. That is a theme throughout the Bible. It's in the Ten Commandments--the worship of any other god breaks the first commandment. It's in the Shema. It's in Jesus' own ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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