13
votes
Accepted
We shall be like him because we shall see him as he is?
The context supports a causative understanding of the phrase "...we shall be like him, because we shall see him as he is", and the context is crucial to the nuance of correct interpretation ...
- 12k
13
votes
Accepted
Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?
There are several matters here that are crucial -
First, 1 John 1:8 should never be read without also reading 1 John 1:10 -
8 If we say we have no sin [noun], we deceive ourselves, and the truth is ...
- 69.4k
11
votes
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Were 1 John and John’s gospel written by the same person?
While before the 20th century there was common agreement on common authorship between the Gospel and Epistles of John, there is, as you mention, no such agreement today. At the same time, we are quick ...
- 35.4k
10
votes
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To whom was the letter 1 John written?
In the Introduction to 1 John in the NIV Study Bible, Donald W. Burdick writes:
Author:
Unlike most NT letters, 1 John does not tell us who the author is. The earliest identification of him ...
- 7,815
9
votes
Were 1 John and John’s gospel written by the same person?
Bibliographic Postscript
This is offered as a supplement to Soldarnal's fine answer.
Probably the most thorough (one is tempted to say "exhaustive") account of the internal evidence bearing on the ...
- 24.5k
9
votes
Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?
The seeming contradiction is from not paying careful attention to the verb tenses; the continuous action of the present tense in particular.
1 John 1:8-10 isn't so much of an issue in an English ...
- 16.8k
8
votes
What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing "Word" in 1 John 1:1?
I don't think it's a mistake in the NASB. The identity of ὁ λόγος ("the word") in 1 John 1:1 is puzzling and may have been intentionally ambiguous. To make matters more complicated, the syntax of vv. ...
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8
votes
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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?
I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is ...
- 13.5k
7
votes
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?
The considerations here are much the same as those I discussed in a previous answer. I have attempted to develop those ideas and tailor it to the passage in question.
[I]s it incorrect to read ...
- 25.7k
7
votes
Accepted
Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification
Here is the Greek text of the two verses you ask about:
1 John 4.14
καὶ ἡμεῖς τεθεάμεθα καὶ μαρτυροῦμεν ὅτι ὁ πατὴρ ἀπέσταλκεν τὸν υἱὸν σωτῆρα τοῦ κόσμου.
Luke 2.29-30
Νῦν ἀπολύεις τὸν δοῦλόν σου, ...
7
votes
What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?
I think that the answer is just a few verses above:
1 John 3:7-8
Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous. He who sins is of the ...
- 615
6
votes
Forgiveness, yes or no?
I think if you look at the context of the verses in 1 John you will see that he was very much concerned with protecting believers from false teaching and false teachers. He starts out in verse 7 with:
...
- 61
6
votes
What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?
The authenticity of the Johannine comma, found in1 John 5:7, has been a subject of debate from the early sixteenth century. Wikipedia says the general consensus today is that that passage is a Latin ...
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6
votes
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?
Discussion of the Neuter Gender
James L. Boyer wrote an article that is helpful here, "Relative Clauses in the Greek New Testament: A Statistical Study," Grace Theological Journal 9 (Fall 1988): 233-...
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6
votes
Accepted
In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?
εν, which means in
It does. It also means one. The Greek text reads:
οι τρεις εν εισιν
If we are to translate εν as in, then it would render as:
the three in are
which makes little sense, ...
5
votes
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To what does "the darkness" refer in 1 John?
A: To help us answer this question we need to examine both the Greek words from which are translated the terms “darkness”, “in the darkness” and “walk in the darkness”, and also the context in which ...
- 84
5
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How should we understand "he cannot sin" in 1 John 3:9?
The Idea in Brief
The present active indicative of the main verb points toward habitual sinning with specific emphasis on those unloving behaviors toward ones fellow believers and leaders. In other ...
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5
votes
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Why is the only use of the word antichrist (G500) in 1st and 2nd John?
I assume the question is about the use of the word 'antichrist', rather than the concept to which the word refers. A related term, pseudochristos, 'false Christ', is found in Matthew 24:24 and in Mark ...
- 12.1k
5
votes
Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification
Interlinear text is a helpful thing, but also very limited - it translates each word individually and unfortunately don't help much with understanding a syntax, which is crucial thing.
John 4:14: καὶ ...
5
votes
What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1
The answer to the OP's question is at the other end of the same sentence which begins in 1 John 1:1 and continues (in the Greek) until the end of V3. The "that" is actually identified as:
&...
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4
votes
Accepted
Identity of the "we" in 1 John 1:1?
[OP] Who is the "we" in 1 John 1:1?
A decent case can be made that the "we" of 1 John 1 is "editorial"; that is, it is a rhetorical device to refer to the author's self. This usage, related to the "...
- 24.5k
4
votes
Accepted
In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?
Short Answer: The shift is not only justified, but I believe it is virtually demanded by the context.
From a grammatical standpoint either "sins" or "keeps on sinning" could work. ...
- 11.8k
4
votes
Accepted
Translation of 1 John 3:2
Short Answer: Possible? Yes. Probable? No.
The "advantages" of Synge's translation
First, let's put to rest Synge's claims about the advantages of his translation.
Regarding the consistently ...
- 11.8k
4
votes
Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13
Tau's answer explains why the antichrist may be synonymous with the man of lawlessness and the beast described in Revelation 13. I would add to that as the question also asks:
Are there any reasons ...
- 13.2k
4
votes
Accepted
The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature
OP's interest in the Johannine "knowing all things" passages requires attention to the theme of "knowledge" more broadly in gJohn in particular, which also bears on the language of 1 John, although ...
- 24.5k
4
votes
To whom was the letter 1 John written?
I think the short answer to your question is that either it was written (a) to the greater Church in general and not any specific local Church; or (b) to Parthians (Persians), resident either in Asia ...
- 9,734
4
votes
Accepted
In 1 John 5:1 does "the one" refer to "God's child" or to "God's children"?
The Greek behind this text is as follows (Received Text - Stephens, Elzevir, Beza and Scrivener all read exactly the same) :
πας ο πιστευων οτι ιησους εστιν ο χριστος εκ του θεου γεγεννηται και πας ο ...
- 26.2k
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