Hot answers tagged

13 votes
Accepted

We shall be like him because we shall see him as he is?

The context supports a causative understanding of the phrase "...we shall be like him, because we shall see him as he is", and the context is crucial to the nuance of correct interpretation ...
user avatar
13 votes
Accepted

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

There are several matters here that are crucial - First, 1 John 1:8 should never be read without also reading 1 John 1:10 - 8 If we say we have no sin [noun], we deceive ourselves, and the truth is ...
user avatar
  • 69.4k
11 votes
Accepted

Were 1 John and John’s gospel written by the same person?

While before the 20th century there was common agreement on common authorship between the Gospel and Epistles of John, there is, as you mention, no such agreement today. At the same time, we are quick ...
user avatar
  • 35.4k
10 votes
Accepted

To whom was the letter 1 John written?

In the Introduction to 1 John in the NIV Study Bible, Donald W. Burdick writes: Author: Unlike most NT letters, 1 John does not tell us who the author is. The earliest identification of him ...
user avatar
  • 7,815
9 votes

Were 1 John and John’s gospel written by the same person?

Bibliographic Postscript This is offered as a supplement to Soldarnal's fine answer. Probably the most thorough (one is tempted to say "exhaustive") account of the internal evidence bearing on the ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
9 votes

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

The seeming contradiction is from not paying careful attention to the verb tenses; the continuous action of the present tense in particular. 1 John 1:8-10 isn't so much of an issue in an English ...
user avatar
  • 16.8k
8 votes

What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing "Word" in 1 John 1:1?

I don't think it's a mistake in the NASB. The identity of ὁ λόγος ("the word") in 1 John 1:1 is puzzling and may have been intentionally ambiguous. To make matters more complicated, the syntax of vv. ...
user avatar
  • 25.7k
8 votes
Accepted

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

I don't have a problem with the idea that Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally--I in fact believe this is supported by other passages (a few examples here and here)--but I don't think that is ...
user avatar
7 votes
Accepted

What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

The considerations here are much the same as those I discussed in a previous answer. I have attempted to develop those ideas and tailor it to the passage in question. [I]s it incorrect to read ...
user avatar
  • 25.7k
7 votes
Accepted

Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Here is the Greek text of the two verses you ask about: 1 John 4.14 καὶ ἡμεῖς τεθεάμεθα καὶ μαρτυροῦμεν ὅτι ὁ πατὴρ ἀπέσταλκεν τὸν υἱὸν σωτῆρα τοῦ κόσμου. Luke 2.29-30 Νῦν ἀπολύεις τὸν δοῦλόν σου, ...
user avatar
7 votes

What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?

I think that the answer is just a few verses above: 1 John 3:7-8 Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous. He who sins is of the ...
user avatar
  • 615
6 votes

Forgiveness, yes or no?

I think if you look at the context of the verses in 1 John you will see that he was very much concerned with protecting believers from false teaching and false teachers. He starts out in verse 7 with: ...
user avatar
  • 61
6 votes

What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?

The authenticity of the Johannine comma, found in1 John 5:7, has been a subject of debate from the early sixteenth century. Wikipedia says the general consensus today is that that passage is a Latin ...
user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?

Discussion of the Neuter Gender James L. Boyer wrote an article that is helpful here, "Relative Clauses in the Greek New Testament: A Statistical Study," Grace Theological Journal 9 (Fall 1988): 233-...
user avatar
  • 19.6k
6 votes
Accepted

In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?

εν, which means in It does. It also means one. The Greek text reads: οι τρεις εν εισιν If we are to translate εν as in, then it would render as: the three in are which makes little sense, ...
5 votes
Accepted

To what does "the darkness" refer in 1 John?

A: To help us answer this question we need to examine both the Greek words from which are translated the terms “darkness”, “in the darkness” and “walk in the darkness”, and also the context in which ...
user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

How should we understand "he cannot sin" in 1 John 3:9?

The Idea in Brief The present active indicative of the main verb points toward habitual sinning with specific emphasis on those unloving behaviors toward ones fellow believers and leaders. In other ...
user avatar
  • 16.1k
5 votes
Accepted

Why is the only use of the word antichrist (G500) in 1st and 2nd John?

I assume the question is about the use of the word 'antichrist', rather than the concept to which the word refers. A related term, pseudochristos, 'false Christ', is found in Matthew 24:24 and in Mark ...
user avatar
5 votes

Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Interlinear text is a helpful thing, but also very limited - it translates each word individually and unfortunately don't help much with understanding a syntax, which is crucial thing. John 4:14: καὶ ...
user avatar
5 votes

What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

The answer to the OP's question is at the other end of the same sentence which begins in 1 John 1:1 and continues (in the Greek) until the end of V3. The "that" is actually identified as: &...
user avatar
  • 69.4k
4 votes
Accepted

Identity of the "we" in 1 John 1:1?

[OP] Who is the "we" in 1 John 1:1? A decent case can be made that the "we" of 1 John 1 is "editorial"; that is, it is a rhetorical device to refer to the author's self. This usage, related to the "...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
4 votes
Accepted

In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

Short Answer: The shift is not only justified, but I believe it is virtually demanded by the context. From a grammatical standpoint either "sins" or "keeps on sinning" could work. ...
user avatar
  • 11.8k
4 votes
Accepted

Translation of 1 John 3:2

Short Answer: Possible? Yes. Probable? No. The "advantages" of Synge's translation First, let's put to rest Synge's claims about the advantages of his translation. Regarding the consistently ...
user avatar
  • 11.8k
4 votes

Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13

Tau's answer explains why the antichrist may be synonymous with the man of lawlessness and the beast described in Revelation 13. I would add to that as the question also asks: Are there any reasons ...
user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature

OP's interest in the Johannine "knowing all things" passages requires attention to the theme of "knowledge" more broadly in gJohn in particular, which also bears on the language of 1 John, although ...
user avatar
  • 24.5k
4 votes

To whom was the letter 1 John written?

I think the short answer to your question is that either it was written (a) to the greater Church in general and not any specific local Church; or (b) to Parthians (Persians), resident either in Asia ...
user avatar
  • 9,734
4 votes
Accepted

In 1 John 5:1 does "the one" refer to "God's child" or to "God's children"?

The Greek behind this text is as follows (Received Text - Stephens, Elzevir, Beza and Scrivener all read exactly the same) : πας ο πιστευων οτι ιησους εστιν ο χριστος εκ του θεου γεγεννηται και πας ο ...
user avatar
  • 26.2k

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible