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The language in which the Jewish Scriptures (Tanakh) -- or the "Old Testament" in Christian Bibles -- were written.

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question mostly stems from the fact that paleo Hebrew did not have the Masorite niqqud, which to me makes sense to add the niqqud in a heavily European environment, centuries later. But (as far as I can tell … of the text. Thank you ——————————————— If you read in the Hebrew the word for fear changes spelling in the same verse “And Moses said unto the people, Fear (תיראו ) not: for God is come to …
asked Jun 30 by Nihil Sine Deo
2
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.” ‭‭Iyov (Job)‬ ‭1:1‬ ‭CJB‬‬ This exact phrase is repeated in the divine council by Elohim Himself in v8. However it’s important to note that Job is not described with the usual Hebrew word for righteous … walked with Elohim.” ‭‭B'resheet (Gen)‬ ‭6:9‬ ‭CJB‬‬ Walking with Elohim was a demonstration that Noah had faith/trust in Elohim and this was why he was reckoned righteous. The same Hebrew word for …
answered Jan 4 by Nihil Sine Deo
-1
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I don’t know that G-d divided the languages by family groups but I can quote the Scripture where it says by what He did divide the nations by “When the Most High gave to the nations their inherita …
answered Jan 9 by Nihil Sine Deo
0
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Building on the other answer that has already given the Hebrew definition, it means to say that such a person does not have “a divided heart” but is completely given over to G-d. Such a person …
answered Jan 28 by Nihil Sine Deo
-2
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Trying to perceive Hebrew with a western understanding can be tricky because not everything fits. Hebrew doesn’t really have the word evil, ra is translated bad even when in English it is … Hebrew vocabulary as a stand alone word, the aforementioned explanations and other interactions I’ve had I feel it means ‘don’t threaten Jacob’ If someone accuses you of stealing and then only speaks …
answered Jan 20 by Nihil Sine Deo
1
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The vav here to my understanding is used to indicate that the second holy is the same as the first. It’s not a different kind of holy, not a new type, or new version but it’s identical. It is emphasiz …
answered Feb 21 by Nihil Sine Deo
2
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The Genesis 2:7 passage is in reference to Adam who was made from lifeless matter. But every other human being including Eve who was separate from Adam’s side was made with living tissue. So I’d sug …
answered Feb 8 by Nihil Sine Deo
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2answers
the heavens. “Praise him, you highest heavens, and you waters above the heavens!” ‭‭Psalms‬ ‭148:4‬ ‭ESV Word here is מים mayim which is part of the Hebrew word שׁמים shamayim heavens. In … Hebrew the sky is part water as its derived name implies. David did not lack in his vocabulary the word for vapor הבל hebel. Or vapor קיטר qiytor used in the same psalm v8. Or vapor אד ‘ed. Instead he …
asked Mar 8 by Nihil Sine Deo
4
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1answer
In this verse the translators say that the tent belonged to Noah, ‘his tent’ but doesn't the feminine possessive suffix indicate that it should be her tent, as in his wife’s tent? “He drank of th …
asked Jul 2 by Nihil Sine Deo
4
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6answers
I had heard about you with my ears, but now my eye sees you; — ‭‭(Job)‬ ‭42:5‬ ‭ Given that in some situations no man can see God and live (Exodus 33:20), yet in other situations God is seen an …
asked Jan 2 by Nihil Sine Deo
2
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5answers
Genesis 2:7 in English it reads God breathe the breath of life(singular) but in Hebrew it reads lives(plural) What is significant that ‘Adam’ received a plurality of lives breathe into him? Eve … nostrils the breath of life, so that he became a living being.” (Gen)‬ ‭2:7‬ ‭ The Hebrew “וַיִּיצֶר֩ יְהוָ֨ה אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶת־הָֽאָדָ֗ם עָפָר֙ מִן־הָ֣אֲדָמָ֔ה וַיִּפַּ֥ח בְּאַפָּ֖יו נִשְׁמַ֣ת …
asked Mar 17 by Nihil Sine Deo
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2answers
living subterraineously. They were living in the earth terrarium. What is the correct rendering in Hebrew of בארץ (I would argue for in the earth) and should it be changed even if it doesn’t align to secular scientific cosmology? *requested rewording of the question …
asked Feb 11 by Nihil Sine Deo
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2answers
Is G d seeing the earth as one big clay/wax seal or is He being misleading to suggest that it looks this way or is He just operating within the cosmology of those alive then despite it conflicting …
asked Jan 1 by Nihil Sine Deo
2
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It might help to understand the difference simply by realizing that in the first instance the English word for vision relates to the dream/oracle/revelation/vision Daniel was having and in the second …
answered Mar 2 by Nihil Sine Deo
1
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Cain, saying, "I have gotten a man with the help of the Lord."” ‭‭Genesis‬ ‭4:1‬ ‭ That’s what the English says but the Hebrew says אישׁ את־יהוה which is roughly, she acquired the man-god or the god …
answered Oct 24 by Nihil Sine Deo

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