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Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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1:2 text The Greek of the Textus Receptus is provided in the question (δι᾽ οὗ καὶ τοὺς αἰῶνας ἐποίησεν), and it is a little different from the widely adopted critical text found in NA28 and UBS4 … in its dictionary form, αἰών (aiōn). As the question notes, its "normal" meaning in the Greek NT (and LXX) is an "extent/period of time" (see especially under section II in that entry for biblical …
answered Jan 30 '14 by Dɑvïd
6
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(1) What does «ἐκ ψυχῆς» mean? It means something like "with all your might". It is attested in classical authors with this sense: see Liddell-Scott-Jones, ψυχή, sub IV.4 "Phrases". A nice exampl …
answered Jan 1 '16 by Dɑvïd
15
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Greek text is Nestle-Aland 27; English text is World English Bible: 16:19 δώσω σοι τὰς κλεῖδας τῆς βασιλείας τῶν οὐρανῶν, 16:19 I will give to you the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven, "(to …
answered Jun 12 '14 by Dɑvïd
5
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can produce. He also has a discussion of the broader range of uses of the aorist, and surveys the main NT Greek grammars on the subject. He concludes (p. 231): It does not follow that the aorist … to the nature of the action behind it. So, to answer the question in brief: yes, the OP is essentially correct his understanding of the aorist in Koine Greek. And perhaps that means things have improved since Stagg wrote his article in 1972! …
answered Feb 13 '14 by Dɑvïd
5
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The size of the "jars" in Matthew 25:4 can be roughly worked out by the convergence of two factors: (1) the semantics of the Greek word used; and (2) the nature of the light-source needing oil. (1 … buckets used by firemen", and so on. So we're probably thinking of something rather larger than a jam jar. (2) Light-source The Greek for the "light source" here is usually translated "lamps", as in …
answered May 23 '18 by Dɑvïd
3
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Matthew 19:5 - We need to pick up at v. 4: ...ὁ κτίσας ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτοὺς 5 καὶ εἶπεν·... Here, the verbs (in bold) both have the same antecedent: epoiēsen and eipen both have …
answered Jul 12 '16 by Dɑvïd
3
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Introduction As existing answers note: (1) "messiah" (Hebrew mashiach) and "christ" (Greek christos) are equivalent words meaning "anointed one", and in the context of Graeco-Roman Judaism and early … /λεγόμενος Christ? I put this together as follows: 1:41 follows John's normal practice of explaining in Greek the Hebrew/Aramaic technical terms, etc., for his readers; but in 4:25, having already …
answered Jan 10 '17 by Dɑvïd
8
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The question: What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX? My first answer would be a working knowledge … of classical Hebrew and koine Greek. I suspect this is not what OP has in mind, but it is the "right" answer. So, trying again: What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words …
answered Dec 20 '14 by Dɑvïd
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:5 includes raḥēm). In Greek. the pairing works this way (with typical Hebrew counterpart): ἐλεήμων (ḥannûn) is merciful compassion; while οἰκτίρμων (raḥûm) is sympathy, pity, involving … earlier Greek usage simply had its literal sense (normally) of "innards" before being used as a translation equivalent for raḥûm in the LXX (with its own literal meaning of "womb") -- beginning to …
answered Mar 15 '14 by Dɑvïd
8
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"Is there any support for this claim?" It seems unlikely. On the one hand, so far as I can tell, Malina and Rohrbaugh offer no evidence in support of their assertion that the phrase γεννήματα ἐχιδνῶν …
answered Dec 29 '15 by Dɑvïd
3
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The textual situation of LXX Judges is somewhat unusual (although not wholly unique). As Philip E. Satterthwaite explains it in his introduction to the NETS edition of Judges, [In the absence of a …
answered Aug 23 '16 by Dɑvïd
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usage of "Jesus" in this familiar book as "anarthrous". Perhaps another reason for this first occurrence in Mark to echo the foreshadowing "Greek Joshua"? Second, in the whole NT, "Jesus" is used … names in wider classical Greek usage is compared with NT usage by A.T. Robertson who cites Basil Gildersleeve's full treatment. There is a fair diversity of usage, so worth perusing those works to gain an impression of the situation. …
answered Nov 22 '15 by Dɑvïd
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this is given as a sub-heading is as follows: II. proof (properly of an argumentative kind, opp. direct evidence,...) And this is where the Greek semantics begin to bear on the tradition of … sometimes suggested that this locution was at home in "Doctor Luke's" medical vocabulary, e.g. R.J. Knowling in volume 2 of the Expositor's Greek Testament (London, 1897), p. 52: Although in a familiar …
answered Mar 20 '15 by Dɑvïd
8
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is usually translated by Greek σάββατον (sabbaton) and does so in 85 of those verses There are, then, five verses when Heb. šabbāt is NOT translated by Grk sabbaton. These follow, with the … "; Grk = "seven pauses" (ἀναπαύσεις / anapauseis) 2 Kgs 16:18 - Heb has "Sabbath" (שַׁבָּת), but Grk translates as if "seat, throne" (שֶׁ֫בֶת) with Greek kathedras So the Greek translators of the …
answered Jan 13 '14 by Dɑvïd
5
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. 2:4; 8:48; 2 Ki. 23:25; 2 Chr. 15:12; 34:31. Greek-Josh 23:14 opts for a different construction altogether, but of the rest, all the Deuteronomy references plus Josh 22:5 and 2 Chr 15:12 use ἐξ, while … and Luke incline towards an inclusion expressive of the totality of "love" demanded. I'm sure there's more to be said here, and I would like to check Wevers' Notes on the Greek Text of Deuteronomy (SBL, 1995), but don't have it to hand. ... Well, it's a start anyway. …
answered Mar 29 '14 by Dɑvïd

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