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Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

1 vote

Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?

I'm going to address this question by going to the trial record first and work backwards. At Matthew 26:61 one of the false witnesses states, "This man stated, I am able to destroy this temple of God …
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5 votes

Should Philippians 2:6 say "in the form of God" or "in the form of a god"?

Verse 6 makes it clear that even though or as the NASB states, "although" or in spite of the fact that He possessed equality with the Father, Jesus did not cling to the prerogatives of His deity. Reme …
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3 votes

Who is angry - Jesus or the Crowd? Mark 3:5

The following is what Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson has to say about the Greek. Verse 5 When he had looked round on them with anger (περιβλεψαμενος αυτους μετ' οργης). …
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0 votes

What does it mean to be a "new creation"?

The Apostle Paul's radical change becomes the experience of all born again believers. Once dead, now they are alive. formerly blind, now they see! Christ makes new creations of those who believe, as r …
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2 votes

Imperfect Indicative Active in John 1:1-4

The actual Greek is en arche-that is, "in beginning." The "Word/Logos of God" was there before the creation of the space-mass-time of the universe. … That Greek word for beginning is "arche" and we get our English word architect from that word. What does an architect do? …
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4 votes

What does the "beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 mean using a Biblical Hermeneutic?

Like I told you before, the Greek word for "beginning" is arche and we get our English word "architect" from that Greek word. …
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5 votes

What is the accurate translation of "οὗτος" in John 1:2?

The following is what Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson says about John 1:2. Verse 2 The same (ουτος — houtos). “This one,” the Logos of John 1:1, repeated for clarity, characteristic of John‘s style. …
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4 votes

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Grea...

The following is what Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson states: Verse 13 Looking for (προσδεχομενοι — prosdechomenoi). …
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-1 votes

In John 1:3 why does the author use ἐγένετο instead of ἐποίησεν?

The actual Greek is en arche--that is, "in beginning." Moreover at John 1:2 "with God." The "Word of God" (i.e., Jesus Christ) was God, yet also "with God." …
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1 vote

Does ἄγγελος κυρίου in the NT (e.g. Acts 12:7) refer to the angel of the LORD in the OT?

There is a difference in the definition of the word "an/a" and the word "the?" The chief grammatical function of "an/a" is to connote a thing NOT previously noted or recognized. The little word "the …
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0 votes

Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?

Since my initial post was deleted because I did not provide the Apostle Paul's thoughts as it relates to the question about Romans 11:36 The following is the question? "So since the Father is both C …
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2 votes

Is John 12:41 talking about Jesus' glory or YHWH's?

In referring to this event, John uses the Greek word ("eidon")- also a verb referring to the act of seeing with the eyes in the natural sense. …
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-1 votes

What is Paul saying in Romans 1:4?

I want to go back to Acts 2:36 because Romans 1:4 explains and sheds light on Acts 2:36. Its been my experience over the years that those that deny the deity of Jesus Christ love to use Acts 2:36 to s …
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2 votes

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "decl...

It is definitely "theology/context." Before getting to John 10:33 "specifically," lets look at what happened before Jesus quoted Psalm 82:6. So let me pose this question? What did Jesus say to cause t …
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3 votes

To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside ...

Personally I don't see anything "ambiguous" at all from John 1:1 and from the immediate context of the verses that follow. What I do find "ambiguous" is the verses you quoted to justify this "new begi …
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