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Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

5 votes

What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb?

He also has a discussion of the broader range of uses of the aorist, and surveys the main NT Greek grammars on the subject. … So, to answer the question in brief: yes, the OP is essentially correct his understanding of the aorist in Koine Greek. …
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In Colossians 3:23, what is the meaning of «ἐκ ψυχῆς» and the distinction between «ποιῆτε» a...

(1) What does «ἐκ ψυχῆς» mean? It means something like "with all your might". It is attested in classical authors with this sense: see Liddell-Scott-Jones, ψυχή, sub IV.4 "Phrases". A nice exampl …
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Is the Greek of "you" in Mathew 18 singular or plural and what does this say about who is gr...

Greek text is Nestle-Aland 27; English text is World English Bible: 16:19 δώσω σοι τὰς κλεῖδας τῆς βασιλείας τῶν οὐρανῶν, 16:19 I will give to you the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven, "(to) you" …
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5 votes

How large were flasks of oil like those mentioned in the Parable of the Ten Bridesmaids?

The size of the "jars" in Matthew 25:4 can be roughly worked out by the convergence of two factors: (1) the semantics of the Greek word used; and (2) the nature of the light-source needing oil. … (2) Light-source The Greek for the "light source" here is usually translated "lamps", as in OP's citation, or the NIV link I have provided. …
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15 votes

In Hebrews 1:2, to what does the Greek word «αἰῶνας» refer?

3 We need to factor in, too, the fact that the Greek form in Heb 1:2 is a plural form: does the translation need to reflect this plurality? … It is noted by many commentators; conveniently, Marcus Dods in Expositor's Greek Testament, in vol. 4, p. 250. …
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What is the significance of omitting the definite article before the name Jesus in Mark 1:9?

Perhaps another reason for this first occurrence in Mark to echo the foreshadowing "Greek Joshua"? Second, in the whole NT, "Jesus" is used approximately 917x. … Finally, the syntax of the article with proper names in wider classical Greek usage is compared with NT usage by A.T. Robertson who cites Basil Gildersleeve's full treatment. …
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8 votes

How many Greek words could be used to translate the Hebrew for day of rest?

This is usually translated by Greek σάββατον (sabbaton) and does so in 85 of those verses There are, then, five verses when Heb. šabbāt is NOT translated by Grk sabbaton. … kathedras So the Greek translators of the Septuagint basically used "sabbaton" when the Hebrew is referring to the "day of rest". …
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13 votes
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Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a "partitive" or "inclusive" sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton p …
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Why does John use different expressions to explain the Messiah is the Christ?

Introduction As existing answers note: (1) "messiah" (Hebrew mashiach) and "christ" (Greek christos) are equivalent words meaning "anointed one", and in the context of Graeco-Roman Judaism and early Christianity … I put this together as follows: 1:41 follows John's normal practice of explaining in Greek the Hebrew/Aramaic technical terms, etc., for his readers; but in 4:25, having already established the translation …
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10 votes

Son of a snake or illegitimate son of a snake?

"Is there any support for this claim?" It seems unlikely. On the one hand, so far as I can tell, Malina and Rohrbaugh offer no evidence in support of their assertion that the phrase γεννήματα ἐχιδνῶν …
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What is the distinction between πολύσπλαγχνός and οἰκτίρμων in James 5:11?

In Greek. the pairing works this way (with typical Hebrew counterpart): ἐλεήμων (ḥannûn) is merciful compassion; while οἰκτίρμων (raḥûm) is sympathy, pity, involving compassionate intervention. … Within that group is James 5:11's πολύσπλαγχνος.3 These terms have their own development in Greek, apart from the related Hebrew vocabulary, and it is ἐλεήμων that is "displaced", rather than οἰκτίρμων …
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3 votes

About the Greek grammar in Matthew 19:4-5, 8

Matthew 19:5 - We need to pick up at v. 4: ...ὁ κτίσας ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτοὺς 5 καὶ εἶπεν·... Here, the verbs (in bold) both have the same antecedent: epoiēsen and eipen both have …
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10 votes

Linking NT Greek to Hebrew through the LXX

In this work, each Greek headword is followed by the listing of the Hebrew words it translates; lists of each occurrence of the Greek term in context is then keyed to the underlying Hebrew word. … This is fine if you're starting with the Greek text. What if you want to start with the Hebrew, and find all its Greek translations? For that, one needs T. …
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9 votes

How convincing were the proofs of the resurrection in Acts 1:3?

And this is where the Greek semantics begin to bear on the tradition of English translation of Acts 1:3. τεκμήριον is also used in the LXX (e.g., 3 Maccabees 3:24; Wisdom of Solomon 5:11; 19:13) with the … demonstrates that the παρίστημι (in context, "presented") + τεκμήριον combination is "normal in Hellenistic Greek", but especially at home among the historians (he cites examples). …
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What is the accurate English translation of Judges 8:18 (Codex Alexandrinus)?

The textual situation of LXX Judges is somewhat unusual (although not wholly unique). As Philip E. Satterthwaite explains it in his introduction to the NETS edition of Judges, [In the absence of a …
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