The first phrase of [Proverbs 6:26](https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Proverbs%206:26) is translated in several different ways by major translations:

> for the price of a prostitute is only a loaf of bread [ESV]

> For on account of a harlot *one is reduced* to a loaf of bread [NASB]

> for a prostitute leaves a man with nothing but a loaf of bread [ESV note; cf. NLT]

It thus appears that the passage could be talking about three different things:

1. The cost of a prostitute is merely a loaf of bread (NIV, ESV, RSV, NABRE)
2. The value of the man who hires a prostitute is that of a loaf of bread (KJV, NKJV, NASB, NET)
3. Hiring prostitutes will leave a man destitute (ESV note, NLT, TLB)

What is the cause of this discrepancy?  I can think of a few reasons:

 - The meaning of the Hebrew text is uncertain, and these are three attempts to express it
 - The meaning of the Hebrew text encompasses more than one of these meanings, but translators must pick one
 - Textual variations lead to disagreement over which rendering is best
  - The ESV's footnote suggests that the Septuagint, Syriac, and Vulgate may lend themselves to interpretation #3

Are all three of my interpretations valid understandings of this text?  What is the basis for viewing one or two of them as preferable over the other(s)?