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user1338998
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( Job 1:5 ) Job seems to be offering sacrifices for his "probable/possible" children's sin and cursing of God in a legalistic/perfunctionary manner

Job 1:1-8

1 There was a man in the land of Uz whose name was Job; and that man was blameless, upright, fearing God and turning away from evil...more...scripture....4 His sons used to go and hold a feast in the house of each one on his day, and they would send and invite their three sisters to eat and drink with them. 5 When the days of feasting had completed their cycle, Job would send and consecrate them, rising up early in the morning and offering burnt offerings according to the number of them all; for Job said, “Perhaps my sons have sinned and cursed God in their hearts.” Thus Job did continually...more...scripture....8 The Lord said to Satan, “Have you [c]considered My servant Job? For there is no one like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, [d]fearing God and turning away from evil.” ......

Most of the commentaries on https://biblehub.com/commentaries/job/1-5.htm
seem to give credit to Job for his act of offering burnt offerings in order to propitiate/expiate/atone for his children's sins.

However, I'm Not really all that satisfied with the said commentaries on biblehub.com because Job himself says to himself or sort of thinks out loud:

Job 1:5b

.......“Perhaps my sons have sinned and cursed God in their hearts.” Thus Job did continually....

To me, the aforementioned verse seems to suggest that Job is legalistic because he says "perhaps" his children sinned and cursed God. It seems like Job is offering his sacrifices in a perfunctory and legalistic mechanical manner.

Could someone please provide their insight/interpretation/exegesis of said bible passage?

Relevant Related Question Posting: In Job 1:5, does Job offer sacrifices to atone for the sins of others, i.e. his sons?

user1338998
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