Since most English translations of the Bible use the masculine nouns and pronouns for gender, what kind of deeper understanding can we get from the fact that in ( Romans 1:26 ) verse that starts off in an order where it
1st) first associating women in the sin of homosexuality
2nd) , and then secondly only mentions men in the sin of homosexuality
(Side Note: I just wanted to refer to 1) a formal equivalence literal translation of the Bible like New American Standard Bible 1995 ( NASB1995 ), and also 2) a dynamic / functional equivalence relatively gender-neutral / gender-inclusive politically correct translation of the Bible like Christian Standard Bible ( CSB ) )
Romans 1:26-27 ( New American Standard Bible 1995 )
26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is [a]unnatural, 27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing [b]indecent acts and receiving in [c]their own persons the due penalty of their error.
Romans 1:26-27 ( Christian Standard Bible )
26 For this reason God delivered them over to disgraceful passions. Their women[a] exchanged natural sexual relations[b] for unnatural ones. 27 The men[c] in the same way also left natural relations with women and were inflamed in their lust for one another. Men committed shameless acts with men and received in their own persons[d] the appropriate penalty of their error.
Nestle-Aland 28 (NA28) Romans 1:26-27
26Διὰ τοῦτο παρέδωκεν αὐτοὺς ὁ θεὸς εἰς πάθη ἀτιμίας, αἵ τε γὰρ θήλειαι αὐτῶν μετήλλαξαν τὴν φυσικὴν χρῆσιν εἰς τὴν παρὰ φύσιν,
27ὁμοίως τε καὶ οἱ ἄρσενες ἀφέντες τὴν φυσικὴν χρῆσιν τῆς θηλείας ἐξεκαύθησαν ἐν τῇ ὀρέξει αὐτῶν εἰς ἀλλήλους, ἄρσενες ἐν ἄρσεσιν τὴν ἀσχημοσύνην κατεργαζόμενοι καὶ τὴν ἀντιμισθίαν ἣν ἔδει τῆς πλάνης αὐτῶν ἐν ἑαυτοῖς ἀπολαμβάνοντες.
The aforementioned order caught my attention because most of the most English translations of the Bible first mention use the masculine nouns and pronouns for gender so why is it strangely switched in ( Romans 1:26 ) where it starts off my mentioning females first?
