In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts there is an article, but not in others:
1 Cor 14:2:
Textus Receptus: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ, ἀλλὰ τῷ Θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.
NA28: ὁ γὰρ λαλῶν γλώσσῃ οὐκ ἀνθρώποις λαλεῖ ἀλλὰ θεῷ· οὐδεὶς γὰρ ἀκούει, πνεύματι δὲ λαλεῖ μυστήρια.
ESV: For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit.
- Is the article likely original to the letter?
- If not, is it possible that MacArthur is correct and it should be "a god" instead of "God"?