Questions tagged [word-study]

Investigation into the meaning or use of an individual word across a specific Biblical text or collection. This can include etymology, morphology, and usage as the word appears in text. This should not be exhaustive for all uses through the entire Bible or testament for frequently used words.

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In Hebrews 4:12 what is the difference between ψυχή ("soul") and πνεῦμα ("spirit")?

Hebrews 4:12 seems to distinguish between "soul" and "spirit" (or ψυχή and πνεῦμα, respectively) in some manner similar to the difference between "joint" and "marrow." For the word of God is quick, ...
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14 answers
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

1. Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written - not 500 years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "...
elika kohen's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
1k views

What is hell? sheol/hades/prison/lake of fire/outer darkness

This question looks at 5 contexts which refer to hell, how the word is used, and what it means. 1. For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
24 votes
9 answers
32k views

What translation best translates the word "vanity" (in the KJV) in Ecclesiastes?

The word "vanity" (KJV) in Ecclesiastes was translated (possibly incorrectly) in the NIV as "meaningless". Is "vanity" the best translation for the Hebrew word hebel (Strongs 1892) or does a newer ...
Lance Roberts's user avatar
10 votes
5 answers
6k views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does Paul mean by "Completeness"?

What are the meanings given the original Greek word? NIV, 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 - Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; ...
aceinthehole's user avatar
4 votes
8 answers
2k views

Who is the Word in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 states “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (John 1:1) and is translated also to: John 1:1 Goodspeed “…and the Word was divine.” John 1:...
geek's user avatar
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3 answers
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Perfect" Be Interpreted in an Eschatological Sense?

1. Question - Regarding Greek Grammar, the Subjunctive "ὅταν": In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Coming of the Perfect" be interpreted in an "Eschatological Sense" - in view of the World? Perhaps ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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21 votes
11 answers
66k views

What did Jesus mean by "be perfect" in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect. ...
ByronArn's user avatar
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4 votes
10 answers
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What does the word "prototokos" mean in Colossians 1:15?

What does the Greek word "prototokos" mean in English as used in Colossians 1:15? Col 1:15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn [prōtotokos] over all creation. [NIV] ...
Abraham C's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
275 views

1 Corinthians 13:9 - How Should "Out Of" Be Translated?

1. Question - Reference Request, and Textual Basis: In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Why is " ἐκ | out of " left out of the translation? Are there any period texts that also have similar constructions? ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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12 votes
2 answers
3k views

Angel or messenger?

Often, it is clear from context whether מלאך and αγγελος refer to a human messenger or an angelic messenger. For example, if a מלאך or αγγελος is sent by a human, then the messenger is likely human. ...
למה זה תשאל לשמי's user avatar
9 votes
4 answers
5k views

In Genesis 6:3 is it "is flesh" or "is also flesh"?

This is a translation issue which the meaning changes greatly on, depending on how it is rendered. For a Christian reader this matter of spirit or flesh (or both) would be highly relevant. Some texts ...
user5266's user avatar
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7 votes
6 answers
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Luke 22:16 - Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?

Related: - Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω? - In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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6 votes
7 answers
894 views

In John 1:14 how can the Word be a Person?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2The same was in the beginning with God. 3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that ...
CMK's user avatar
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15 votes
4 answers
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In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise authority"...
Susan's user avatar
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10 votes
5 answers
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Why is עֲרוּמִּ֔ים (Gen 2:25) translated "naked," and in the very next verse its singular form, עָר֔וּם (Gen 3:1), is translated "crafty/shrewd?"

I am curious as to why the Hebrew word for "crafty/shrewd," עָרוּם, used to characterize the serpent in the Garden in Genesis 3:1 is the same word in Genesis 2:25, describing Adam and Eve, yet ...
H. F. Watts Jr.'s user avatar
8 votes
7 answers
47k views

What does the word "world" mean in John 3:16, in the light of John 17:9?

John 3:16 “For God so loved the world, that He gave His only ...
John Unsworth's user avatar
5 votes
9 answers
990 views

Eternal punishment vs eternal life in Matthew 25:46

Matthew 25:46 New International Version "Then they will go away to eternal [G166] punishment, but the righteous to eternal [G166] life." Do these two uses of "eternal" carry the ...
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1 vote
2 answers
801 views

Did Chrysostom's Text Say a "Double Sabbath" was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question: Homilies on Matthew (...
elika kohen's user avatar
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16 votes
6 answers
12k views

Does Isaiah 7:14 refer to a virgin?

There have been quite a few debates on why the word παρθένος (“virgin”) is used in the Septuagint of Isaiah 7:14 when translating the Hebrew word עלמה ("a young maiden”).1 For context let us go ...
Adithia Kusno's user avatar
15 votes
5 answers
35k views

What was meant by "paradise" when Jesus spoke to the thief on the cross?

As he was crucified, Jesus engaged in a conversation with one of the thieves hung along side him. At the end of that conversation is this pronouncement: Luke 23:43 (ESV) 43 And he said to him, "...
Caleb's user avatar
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15 votes
12 answers
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In 2 Peter 1:4 what does Peter mean by "partakers of the divine nature"?

3His divine power has granted to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of him who called us to his own glory and excellence, 4by which he has granted to us his ...
Jack Douglas's user avatar
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13 votes
6 answers
7k views

In Luke 11:50-51, why does Luke seem to refer to Abel as a "prophet"?

In the gospel of Luke at Chapter 11:50-51 (NIV), Jesus refers to Abel as a "prophet." I am not aware of any scripture spoken by Abel, which would prove that he is a prophet,but the words of Jesus ...
Bagpipes's user avatar
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9 votes
5 answers
930 views

What does Paul mean by "Christ is the end of the law for righteousness" in Rom 10:4?

KJV Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. Is this scripture in regards to righteousness? Is this speaking of Christ as the limit, end or total ...
Lowther's user avatar
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8 votes
9 answers
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What is the logos in Heb 4:12?

Heb 4:12 For the word (logos) of God is living and active, and sharper than any two-edged sword, even penetrating as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to ...
Steve's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
773 views

What is the proper interpretation of ἄνωθεν in Luke 1:3?

The Text Luke 1:3 reads in the Greek (with the word in question highlighted; SBLGNT): ἔδοξε κἀμοὶ παρηκολουθηκότι ἄνωθεν πᾶσιν ἀκριβῶς καθεξῆς σοι γράψαι, κράτιστε Θεόφιλε It is translated a ...
ScottS's user avatar
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7 votes
2 answers
3k views

What would Peter "bind" or "loose" on earth?

In Matthew 16 Jesus tells Peter that, as the rock on which his church will be built, he’d bind or loose things on earth. Matthew 16:18-19 (KJV) And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon ...
John Martin's user avatar
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5 votes
6 answers
30k views

What is the “Light” of Genesis 1:3?

In Genesis 1:3 (ESV), it is written, And God said, "Let there be light," and there was light. The Hebrew word which is translated into English as "light" is אֹור (or) (Strong's H216). Is this "...
Derek Scott's user avatar
5 votes
7 answers
1k views

Luke 23:54 - How should "Sabbath Dawning" be Interpreted?

The Syriac of Luke 23:54 seems to affirm an interpretation of "Sabbath Dawning". In addition, the same word seems to be used 43 times in the Syriac New Testament to mean "Dawn". So,...
elika kohen's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
274 views

In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?

Related: - The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast? - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
3k views

In 1 Cor. 15:56, What is the "Power" of Sin?

Question: In 1 Cor. 15:56, what is the "Power / δύναμις of Sin"? Note: I had expected to find a form of "ἐξουσία" for power, but this wasn't the case. Similarly, there is another ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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3 votes
5 answers
2k views

What is meant by “power” in the context of Acts 1:8?

Acts 1:7-8 (NIV): 7 He said to them: “It is not for you to know the times or dates the Father has set by his own authority. 8 But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you ...
user avatar
2 votes
5 answers
115 views

Comparing the words "beginning" and God's "word" in 2 Peter 3:4-5 with John 1:1-3

2 Peter 3:4-5 ASV and saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for, from the day that the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation. For this they ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
219 views

In what sense is the word בּרך (blaspheme) used in 1 Kings 10:9 & 1 Kings 21:10

(KJV)1 Kings 10:9 9 Blessed be the Lord thy God, which delighted in thee, to set thee on the throne of Israel: because the Lord loved Israel for ever, therefore made he thee king, to do judgment ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
23 votes
6 answers
43k views

Was "Τετέλεσται" actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?

I've often heard some really cool explanations around the meaning for the greek word Τετέλεσται in the New Testament where Jesus said, "It is Finished". I love what I've heard, and have even preached ...
Joel Glovier's user avatar
19 votes
8 answers
34k views

Translation of "abba" (Αββα, אבא)

What is the best English translation of abba (Greek: Αββα, Aramaic: אבא) such as in Romans 8:15? What are its senses in the original languages, and are those best captured by father, dad, daddy, or ...
jrdioko's user avatar
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14 votes
5 answers
3k views

Is there a difference between "the devil" and "Satan" in the Synoptic Gospels?

While answering a question about the words σατανᾶς (satanas, Satan – transliterated from Hebrew śāṭān) and διάβολος (diabolos, devil) in the New Testament, I ran into another question for which ...
Susan's user avatar
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12 votes
6 answers
14k views

What does Jesus mean when he says "blessed" in the Beatitudes of Matthew 5?

I ask this as blessed can mean many things. Eternal life, financial wealth, health, having kids, having a job, being happy, etc. Blessings seem to be very broad, so I'd like to see if anyone can ...
RJ Navarrete's user avatar
11 votes
4 answers
1k views

What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?

The word "life" appears in most translations of John 12:25 three times. For example, in the ESV: Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal ...
Soldarnal's user avatar
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11 votes
5 answers
12k views

Who is being slandered in 2 Peter 2:10b-11?

There are a number of interrelated questions I have arising from 2 Peter 2:10-11. Here are a pair of translations of the relevant verses (emphasis mine): NIV: Bold and arrogant, they are not afraid ...
Soldarnal's user avatar
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10 votes
2 answers
497 views

Difference between ῥῆμα Θεοῦ, vs., λόγον Θεοῦ

What is the difference in meaning between the NT's use of these two phrases, both translated "Word of God" (if any)? λόγον Θεοῦ (only the singular not plural), Matt 15:6, Mark 7:13, Luke 5;...
Dottard's user avatar
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10 votes
4 answers
3k views

Does Peter intend to identify the Pauline Epistles as canonical?

In 2 Peter 3:15-16, Peters states: And count the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul also wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, as he does in all his ...
Ray's user avatar
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9 votes
4 answers
20k views

Does the Hebrew word “olam" mean “forever" in Leviticus 23:41?

Several passages refer to keeping a feast as a statute forever. For instance, Exodus 12:14 reads: “This day shall be for you a memorial day, and you shall keep it as a feast to the Lord; throughout ...
Ani Powell's user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
1k views

Hebrews 12:2 "for the joy" or "instead of the joy"?

Hbr 12:1-2 keeping our eyes fixed on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter of our faith. For the joy set out for him he endured the cross, disregarding its shame, and has taken his seat at the right ...
myshon's user avatar
  • 303
8 votes
1 answer
312 views

Does the qal in Amos 3:6 automatically imply causation?

I am looking at Amos 3:6 and I expected a permissive rather than causative verb but I found a perfect qal. Does this qal actually mean cause here? Amo 3:6 Shall a trumpet be blown in the city, and ...
user avatar
7 votes
7 answers
4k views

What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
R. Brown's user avatar
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7 votes
3 answers
303 views

Does the expression "(to be) filled with the Spirit" denote a temporary experience or a permanent state of being?

Variants of the expression "(to be) filled with the Spirit" can be found multiple times in the Bible: and I have filled him with the Spirit of God, with ability and intelligence, with ...
user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
1k views

Has Paul's concept in 2 Thessalonians 2:7 been misunderstood?

ο κατεχων αρτι εως εκ μεσου γενηται [TR - undisputed] 2 Thess 2: 7 (b) ... only he who now letteth (will let), until he be taken out of the way. [KJV] ... he who restrains at present until out of [...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
3 answers
831 views

What is Divination?

Question: According to ancient, primary sources, what was divination and how was it practiced? Translations that seem to confuse the terms: NASB, Genesis 44:5 - Is not this the one from which my lord ...
elika kohen's user avatar
  • 5,251
5 votes
3 answers
3k views

What is the meaning of "Let" in the phrase "Let there be light"?

Genesis 1:3 (KJV) And God said, Let there be light: and there was light. What's the meaning of the word "let"? Is the meaning closer to: cause/effect, i.e. physics-related; or allow/permit (cf), ...
Pacerier's user avatar
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