Questions tagged [word-study]

Investigation into the meaning or use of an individual word across a body of writing.

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2
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4answers
232 views

How might "one mind" in Philippians 2:2 compare with "your mind" in Mark 12:30?

"complete my joy by being of the same mind, having the same love, being in full accord and of one mind." Philippians 2:2 ESV -One mind. mind/phroneo. "And you shall love the Lord your ...
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8answers
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Who is the Word in John 1:1 [duplicate]

John 1:1 states “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (John 1:1) and is translated also to: John 1:1 Goodspeed “…and the Word was divine.” John 1:...
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What does the word one in John 10:30 and Mark 12:29 mean?

Mark 12:29 YLT and Jesus answered him -- 'The first of all the commands is, Hear, O Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is one; John 10:30 YLT I and the Father are one On which verse does it mean (...
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Does the word one in Deuteronomy 6:4 and Mark 12:29 mean the cardinal number 1?

Deuteronomy 6:4 YLT Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah; Mark 12:29 YLT and Jesus answered him -- 'The first of all the commands is, Hear, O Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is one;...
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4answers
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What does "faith in Jesus Christ" mean in Romans 3:22?

"the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe". Romans 3:22. ESV. In this verse is Jesus Christ the source of faith? Christians have faith because they are in ...
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1answer
28 views

Translating 3 John 1:2 ὑγιαίνειν καθὼς σου ψυχή εὐοδοῦταί

I was doing some amateur translating of 3 John using the Abridged BDB, and it seems to me that 3 John 1:2 should be translated as Beloved, I pray that you flourish in all things and are healthy to ...
6
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1answer
112 views

In Leviticus 23:20 did they wave the bread of firstfruits along with the lambs?

Leviticus 23:20 (KJV, emphasis added): And the priest shall wave them with the bread of the firstfruits for a wave offering before the LORD with the two lambs: they shall be holy to the LORD for ...
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2answers
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In what way will The Lord will not allow the righteous to hunger? (Proverbs 10:3)

Proverbs 10:3 (NASB) states: The Lord will not allow the righteous to hunger, But He will reject the craving of the wicked. There are 89 verses in NASB containing the words "hunger" and &...
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1answer
125 views

How do we know that gârash H1644 can mean ‘divorced’?

Gârash generally means driven out, but in the case of a woman, it is commonly translated ‘divorced’. Why is it not translated ‘driven out’, ‘sent away’, ‘separated from her husband’? eg Lev 21:7 (...
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3answers
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What is the significance of Hebrew word tummah at Job 2:3?

And the LORD said unto Satan, Hast thou considered my servant Job, that there is none like him in the earth, a perfect and an upright man, one that feareth God, and escheweth evil? and still he ...
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What does the word 'whosoever' mean in John 3:16?

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. [John 3:16 KJV] I don't see how most Christians define ...
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2answers
501 views

What do the words "boasts" & "knows mean in Jeremiah 9:24

Jeremiah 9:24 but let him who boasts boast in this, that he understands and knows me, that I am the LORD who practices steadfast love, justice, and righteousness in the earth. For in these things ...
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8answers
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What is meant by "obsolete" in Hebrews 8:13?

Hebrews 8:13 (ESV): 13 In speaking of a new covenant, he makes the first one obsolete. And what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away. What is meant by obsolete? Related ...
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1answer
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In Matthew 8:18-23 does discipleship involve being an itinerant? Is discipleship as in the gospels obsolete?

Christians today often claim to be disciples of Jesus. However, discipleship seems to involve being an itinerant. KJV Mat 8:18  Now when Jesus saw great multitudes about him, he gave commandment ...
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1answer
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In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?

[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now, [Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now, [Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
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Why is עֲרוּמִּ֔ים (Gen 2:25) translated "naked," and in the very next verse its singular form, עָר֔וּם (Gen 3:1), is translated "crafty/shrewd?"

I am curious as to why the Hebrew word for "crafty/shrewd," עָרוּם, used to characterize the serpent in the Garden in Genesis 3:1 is the same word in Genesis 2:25, describing Adam and Eve, yet ...
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4answers
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How does "a great high priest" compare with "a royal priesthood"?

"Since then we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession." Hebrews 4:14 ESV. "But you are a chosen race, a ...
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4answers
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Who is/are the referent(s) of the Greek words "ho Theos" at Mark 13:19 and what does it mean there. Is it the same every else too?

The following verses have the words "ho Theos" in their Greek translations. There are a lot more. Mark 1:1 Matthew 3:9 Mark 13:19 Luke 2:19 Acts 2:11 John 8:42,47 Luke 1:26 Acts 26:6 ...
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What are the "firstfruits of the Spirit" in Romans 8:23?

"And not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption of our bodies." Romans 8:23 ESV. ...
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2answers
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What translation issues centre on "firstfruits" in Romans 8:23?

Regarding Romans 8:23 another question on this site asks, "Who are said to have the firstfruits?" Here I mention and ask about the reasons for translation differences: CSB, Holman CSB and ...
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Why does the ESV translate "horizo" "declared" in Romans 1:4?

"and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the Spirit of holiness by the resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord,". Romans 1:4 All from ESV: Luke 22:22 ...
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1answer
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Why were the destitute in the dunghill?

The metaphor of lifting the poor from a dunghill (Psalm 113:7, 1 Sam 2:8) or sending the proud to the dunghill (Lamentations 4:5) is quite the visual. In most verses, אַשְׁפֹּת seems to be used more ...
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2answers
116 views

What does it mean that the Greek middle voice is used at Luke 4:3 to command the stone to become bread?

The devil said to him, "If you are the Son of God, tell this stone to become bread (Luke 4:3, NIV) (NA28) εἶπεν δὲ αὐτῷ ὁ διάβολος· εἰ υἱὸς εἶ τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰπὲ ⸂τῷ λίθῳ τούτῳ ἵνα γένηται [a] ἄρτος⸃ I ...
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What does "understanding" mean in "the peace of God which surpasses all understanding" Philippians 4:7?

"And the peace of God which surpasses all understanding, will guard your hearts and minds in Christ Jesus". Philippians 4:7 ESV. [understanding-Strong's 3563]. e.g. How can Christians have ...
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2answers
635 views

In Ephesians 6:15 what does Paul mean by the "preparation of the gospel of peace"?

NET Bible Eph 6:15 by fitting your feet with the preparation that comes from the good news of peace, What is Paul comparing to footwear? Preparation? What kind of preparation comes from the gospel? ...
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2answers
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In 2 Corinthians 6:15, who or what is "Belial"?

2Co 6:15 What harmony exists between the Messiah and Beliar, or what do a believer and an unbeliever have in common? "Belial aka Beliar" is a Hebrew word meaning something like "worthlessness one":...
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1answer
29 views

Does "enclosed" in Luke 5:6 help us understand "consigned" in Romans 11:32?

"For God has consigned all to disobedience, that he may have mercy on all". Romans 11:32 ESV [consigned/synekleisen]. "And when they had done this, they enclosed a large number of fish,...
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2answers
376 views

Is "the sin of the world" a type of sin? John 1v29 " Behold the Lamb of the world which taketh away the sin of the world"? A.V

Sins which belong to this world have the possibility of being taken away. But in Luke 10:18 we read "And he said to them, I beheld Satan as lightning fall from heaven". I understand that ...
2
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1answer
126 views

Gospel of Thomas, What is Putting a 'Foot in Place of a Foot?'

I've wondered about this for years, what does Thomas mean? The passage is below, Thomas 1:22: Jesus said to them, "When you make the two into one, and when you make the inner like the outer and ...
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5answers
264 views

In John 3:35, what are the "all things" that are given into Christ's hands?

Verse 35 comes before verse 36 where everlasting life is contrasted with the wrath of God. So perhaps "all" refers to both of these. Verse 33 and verse 34 are about things of the Spirit and verse 31 ...
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1answer
59 views

Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"

"We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him." 1 John 5:18 NKJB. The word "born" occurs ...
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2answers
58 views

What, if anything, does "love" in 1 John 4:8 have in common with "love" in 2 Timothy 4:10?

"Anyone who does not love does not know God..". 1 John 4:8 ESV. "For Demas, in love with this present world, has deserted me and gone to Thessalonica..". 2 Timothy 4:10. Despite ...
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4answers
437 views

Why is peirazo "tempts" in James 1:13 but "test" in John 6:6?

"and he himself tempts no one". from James 1:13 ESV "He said this to test him,..." John 6:6 ESV tempts/peirazei James 1:13. test/peirazon John 6:6. Was Philip tempted?
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1answer
45 views

Who is included in the word "our" in Isaiah 53:4?

Who is included in the word "our" in Isaiah 53:4? "Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows" Obviously in verse 5 the word "our" is for every human being ...
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6answers
145 views

Biblically, can the term firstborn really have nothing to do with chronology?

I would like to better understand the meaning of firstborn in Col 1:15 by surveying how the only word (to my knowledge) scripturally translated as firstborn in Greek, prototokos, is applied in ...
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2answers
56 views

Does "all flesh" in John 17:2 mean the same as "all flesh" in Acts 2:17?

"..Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you, since you have given him authority over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom you have given him". John 17:...
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In Mark 4:38, what does it mean to "care"?

[Mar 4:38 NLT] (38) Jesus was sleeping at the back of the boat with his head on a cushion. The disciples woke him up, shouting, "Teacher, don't you care that we're going to drown?" [Mar 4:38 ...
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4answers
282 views

What does "receive" mean in John 1:12?

"But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God....
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What is the κατεχον and who is the κατεχων at 2 Thess 2:6-7?

The expression "mystery of iniquity" (more common, "hidden power of lawlessness" - Greek: μυστήριον τῆς ἀνομίας; Lat: mysterium iniquitatis) comes from the Second Letter to the ...
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1answer
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What are the sayings of Hozai (the Seers) according to 2-Ch 33:19

2 Chronicles 33:19 Also his prayer and how God received his entreaty, and all his sin and trespass, and the sites where he built high places and set up wooden images and carved images, before ...
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2answers
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Does 'panaq' (Proverbs 29:21) have relevance to Galatians 4:1-7 (sonship)?

The word panaq is used only once in scripture, in Proverbs 29:21, and thus has caused some head-scratching as is seen in the question on this site which asked if it were good to turn a 'slave' into a ...
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4answers
176 views

John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? [duplicate]

Apparently there are several variations of the verse from John 1:18, but the main difference between the different renderings is the μονογενὴς θεός (monogenes theos, "the only God") versus ὁ ...
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484 views

If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God?

John 1:1 (NIV): In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:14 (NIV): 14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the ...
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7answers
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In Romans 6:7 why is δεδικαίωται translated "freed" in many English versions?

Romans 6:7 invariably discusses a believer's freedom from sin in most English translations: NET © (For someone who has died has been freed from sin.) NIV © because anyone who has died has ...
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5answers
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What is the exact meaning of הׇיְתָה in Genesis 1:2?

In the first clause of Genesis 1:2 there is a verb הׇיְתָה. Some versions translate it as "was" when it also bears the meaning "to become" and many more. My question is what should הׇיְחׇה be ...
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4answers
388 views

In 2 Cor 5:14 what is the meaning of "one has died for all"?

In 2 Cor 5:14, "For Christ's love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died." NIV v11 "we" =people in the church. v12 "We","us",and "you" are all people in ...
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1answer
79 views

In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young's Literal Translation being the Minority Report: https://biblehub.com/acts/24-15.htm https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/...
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2answers
51 views

He has called us "by" or "to" his own glory in 2 Peter 1:3?

"His divine power has given us everything we need for a godly life through our knowledge of him who called us by his own glory and goodness". 2 Peter 1:3 NIV "...who called us to his ...
3
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3answers
2k views

How is Japheth is enlarged if confined to the tents of Shem? Gen 9:27

In this passage, Noah explicitly states that Japheth will have no dwelling place of his own. Genesis:9.27 May God enlarge Japheth, And may he dwell in the tents of Shem;.... Note: Japheth will ...
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1answer
21 views

Definitive distinction between Greek Heir κληρονόμον ("klēronómos") in Hebrews 1:2 versus an Ivri Heir יוֹרֵ֥שׁ ("Yoresh") in Genesis 15:3?

Was the Greek term for [Heir] : κληρονόμον ("klēronómos") - always associated with divine inheritance, similar to the Ivri term for [The Heir] : הַיֹּרֵשׁ֙ ("Ha-Yoresh") | [Heir] ...

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