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Why in many cases, the translation inverts the future with the past (for example in Deuteronomy 34)?

I perceived during the reading of this week's Torah parashah (Deutornomy/Devariam 34:6) that the verb in יִּקְבֹּ֨ר is in the future: וַיִּקְבֹּ֨ר אֹת֤וֹ בַגַּי֙ בְּאֶ֣רֶץ מוֹאָ֔ב מ֖וּל בֵּ֣ית ...
João Víctor Melo's user avatar