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Questions tagged [transliteration]

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Why does the Septuagint us ph for the name Philistines?

Reading the ever-surprising Timeline of the name Palestine, I noticed that the Egyptian, Assyrian, and biblical Hebrew have a "P" as the first consonant of the names equivalent to Peleshet/...
trespda's user avatar
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0 votes
1 answer

Why is Iakobos translated as (J)ames

Acts 1:13 When they entered the city they went to the upper room where they were staying, Peter and John and James and Andrew, Philip and Thomas, Bartholomew and Matthew, James son of Alphaeus, Simon ...
I believe I believe's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer

Are there any recognized Rules in Translation Committees that speak to whether a Greek word should be "translated" or "transliterated"?

Are there any Universal Rules for transliterating instead of translating used by translation committees? Or is this practice left up to individual committees, and their traditions, seminary emphasis, ...
ray grant's user avatar
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9 votes
1 answer

Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?

The Hebrew א and the Greek χ (especially in their typical manuscript form) look very similar. 'Jewish Greek' (Septuagintic/Diaspora/NT Greek) already being an insiders language (inasmuch it's ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer

Why are forms of the word 'βάπτισμα' transliterated as 'baptism, baptize,' instead of being translated?

Mark 16:16, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." (KJV) Is the word "baptized" in the English translations really a translation? I was ...
Papa Pat's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers

A question about the word λεντιον, lention, (linteum ?) in John 13: 4,5

In John 13:4,5 the word λεντιον lention is used - translated 'towel' usually. Young, Strong, Thayer and Liddel & Scott all refer to linteum, a Latin word. For Strong and Thayer, see Biblehub. I ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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11 votes
3 answers

Why is “maranatha” in 1 Cor 16:22?

1 Cor 16:22 reads: εἴ τις οὐ φιλεῖ τὸν κύριον, ἤτω ἀνάθεμα. μαράνα θά. NA28 If anyone has no love for the Lord, let him be accursed. Our Lord, come!ESV From what I gather, there is some question as ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.6k
13 votes
5 answers

Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?

It seems to me that the Hebrew language doesn't have graphemes representing vowel sounds. On the other hand, the Greek language does. Also, I've heard that Josephus said that the Tetragrammaton (יהוה)...
user4951's user avatar
  • 2,633
5 votes
5 answers

What is the Hebrew name of the prophet Jeremiah—Yirmeyah or Yirmeyahu?

When the question was asked on Christian hermeneutics the response was both: Please read what I wrote. Jer. 28:5 has יִרְמְיָה (Yirmeyah) and Jer. 7:1 has יִרְמְיָהוּ (Yirmeyahu). As for your ...
user4951's user avatar
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9 votes
2 answers

Should the word 'satan' be left untranslated, merely be transliterated and left to the traditional connotations?

The word 'satan' is being used and heard as if it were a name. How could it be rendered in a way not distracting from its actual meaning of opposition and enmity? The texts where this is an issue are ...
hannes's user avatar
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14 votes
2 answers

Why do English translations sometimes, but not always, transform names instead of just transliterating them?

When translating a text you have to deal with names. While occasionally names are translated "semantically" (according to their meaning), usually we just keep the name as a name -- approximately. ...
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13 votes
6 answers

If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated "Jesus" but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
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