Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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1answer
166 views

What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?

ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, 1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881) and this ...
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1answer
562 views

What does the phrase “salvation, and glory, and power, belong to the Lord our God” mean in Revelation 19:1?

What does the phrase "salvation, and glory, and power, belong to the Lord our God" mean in Revelation 19:1? Most translations seem to render the text as "belong to our God": http://biblehub.com/...
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1answer
782 views

Why do some translations say “translated Dorcas” in Acts 9:36?

Acts 9:36 introduces us to Tabitha who Luke kindly translates for us so we'll understand that this means "Gazelle." However, quite a few English translations transliterate the Greek so we fail to ...
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1answer
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James and Jacob are translated as the same name. What were the criteria followed for name translations?

I refer my native language telugu bible. This is my observation from my bible. The people listed below are translated using the same name: Jacob son of Isaac James the son of Zebedee James the ...
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1answer
722 views

Why do some translations translate eternal life (ζωὴν αἰώνιον) in different ways?

Why do some translations translate eternal life (ζωὴν αἰώνιον) in different ways? Consider for example, John 4:36, 6:40. While some use 'eternal life' in both cases, KJV and NASB do not: “Already ...
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2answers
83 views

Why “from whence” and not simply “whence”?

Although it seems to be a fairly common error, even in significant writers such as Shakespeare, Dickens, Twain, etc, still I was surprised to find the "from whence" instead of "whence" error in Bible ...
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5answers
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What is the proper translation of Proverbs 22:6?

I've read that the translation, which implies a promise to "right parenting" of Train up a child in the way he should go; even when he is old he will not depart from it. is not accurate ...
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1answer
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When and why does the Names of God translation use the word “God”?

I was just introduced me to the Names of God translation. It seems to leave any reference to God untranslated, presumably to help the reader better understand the complexities of God's being. I ...
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3answers
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Why did Tyndale (1525) not capitalize 'word' in John 1:1?

In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. John 1:1 (Tyndale Bible 1534 by William Tyndale) Why did Tyndale (1525) did not capitalize 'word' in John 1:1?
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Greek Septuagint in KJV? Old Testament or New Testament?

Was the Septuagint used in the translation of the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible? Is it just for the Old Testament or the New Testament?
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1answer
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What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing “Word” in 1 John 1:1?

In John's gospel introduction, Jesus is presented as the incarnate Word and so capitalizing Word there is fitting. In 1 John 1:1, it seems clear that the 'word' is the message about the Life, and ...
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1answer
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What do the “Goodrick-Kohlenberger” numbers represent? What features does this system offer in distinction from previous numbering systems?

I notice that not a lot of work is published using Goodrick-Kohlenberger numbers (though I bought an NIV that had them instead of Strong's). What does this numbering system represent? How does it ...
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1answer
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Rev 3:11 I come quickly vs I come soon

What are the arguments as to whether ἔρχομαι ταχύ (for example in Rev 3:11) should be translated as "I come quickly" or "I come soon", respectively. I understand that both translations are ...
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3answers
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Did eve say “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”?

NET Version: "I have created a man just as the LORD did!" (Genesis 4:1) Most other translations have her giving credit to the Lord, whereas this one has her pretending to be a Godess. While this ...
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Did eve say “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”? [duplicate]

Edit: Answers are being given here: Did eve say “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”? NET Version: "I have created a man just as the LORD did!" (Genesis 4:1) Most other translations have ...
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3answers
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Why is “Elyon” Translated as “The” Most High?

I checked some bible translation here: http://www.biblestudytools.com/deuteronomy/32-8-compare.html Almost every translation translates Elyon as the Most High. The Hebrew Names Version1 translation ...
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2answers
568 views

Does the Hebrew tally these numbers?

Some Bible versions seem to make an assumption when translating the text of Daniel 12:12. Most translate it as 1335 days but that is not actually what it says! The Authorised Version (and some ...
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0answers
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Hebrew-to-Greek translation of birth narrative's “virgin” [duplicate]

I've been going through a list of words and phrases that were possibly mistranslated from Hebrew to Greek, Old Testament to New Testament. The one that stood out to me with great significance is how ...
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0answers
102 views

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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5answers
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What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
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3answers
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Should different but synonymous words be translated differently?

Background: On Matthew's account of the temptation of Jesus in the desert, the exchanges between the tempter and Jesus are recorded for three temptations. The last one ending with Jesus sending the ...
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0answers
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The Correct Meaning of Genesis 6:3 - Also Flesh or Is Flesh? [duplicate]

This is a translational issue and, depending on how Genesis 6:3 is rendered, its meaning changes greatly. For a Christian reader this matter of spirit or flesh (or both) is highly relevant. Here is ...
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1answer
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Are 2 Samuel 1:25 and 1:27 questions or an exclamations?

In 2 Samuel 1:25 and 1:27 there appears the sentence: אֵיךְ נָפְל֣וּ גִבֹּרִ֔ים Ekh naphelu gibborim How the mighty have fallen! / How have the mighty fallen? Is this meant to be understood as a ...
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1answer
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Why is Luke 24:44 rendered “ψαλμοῖς” instead of “Αγιογραφία”?

This verse appears to be referring to the Tanakh, which of course contains the Torah ("Teaching", which contains the Law of Moses), Nevi'im ("Prophets") and Ketuvim ("Writings" or "Hagiographa"), but ...
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2answers
988 views

Daniel 7:27 translation

I hope someone can help me with this one. Question - What is the correct translation of end of Daniel 7:27? Is it Him (God) or it (kingdom)? As much as I looked, all English translations say Him - ...
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5answers
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John 14:2, why “dwelling places” in NABRE

Two translations of John 14:2. In my Father’s house there are many dwelling places. If there were not, would I have told you that I am going to prepare a place for you? (NABRE) In my Father's house ...
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1answer
366 views

Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
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12answers
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How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
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4answers
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Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying “I am he”?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
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1answer
347 views

Looking for electronic copies of the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic texts, and electronic translation/analyses databases to interpret them [closed]

If this question is worded poorly or could be rephrased, please do help me know how best to ask it. I am genuinely seeking the information outlined below, but I'm new here, so please forgive me if I ...
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2answers
481 views

Is “God” capitalised because it's the given name of Christianity's god? [closed]

When explaining when "God" is capitalised and when it is not to people from a non-English-speaking background, I say that it's capitalised when it's referring to Christianity's god, because it's the ...
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2answers
973 views

Galatians 3:22 - Did the law imprison us under sin or imprison the things which were already under sin?

I have a question on the translation of Galatians 3:22. Most English translations give something like the NIV gives: But Scripture has locked up everything under the control of sin, so that what ...
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2answers
252 views

About prophesies in the Book of Daniel

In Daniel 12:4, it says in the Old King James version: ...many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased. But in the New International Version it reads: Many will go here and there ...
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1answer
1k views

Psalm 23:6 correct translation

In Psalm 23:6, the וְשַׁבְתִּ֥י (dwell, return), is Qal, Perfect aspect, yet all translate in the future "will dwell" or will return." Is it because the context?
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2answers
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How are statistical comparisons between bible translations calculated?

(This arose from this question which was in turn triggered by this answer.) Quoting Jack Douglas quoting Wayne Grudem: In "The advantages of the ESV” by Wayne Grudem, he states that the 2001 ...
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4answers
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Why does the ESV use “surely” in Genesis 2:16 when all others say “freely”?

Someone has brought it to my attention that the ESV deviates from all other English translations in Genesis 2:16 by changing "freely" to "surely." The ESV is heavily endorsed by ...
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4answers
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How can the translation of δοξης as “glory” in Romans 3:23 be justified?

According to Liddell and Scott’s Intermediate Greek Lexicon (also called Middle Liddell) the word δόξα or δοξης can mean: expectation, an opinion, judgment, the opinion which others have of one, ...
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2answers
211 views

Haggai 1:6 - Thirsty vs Drunk

Haggai 1:6 (NLT): You have planted much but harvest little. You eat but are not satisfied. You drink but are still thirsty. You put on clothes but cannot keep warm. Your wages disappear as though ...
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0answers
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What version of the Bible is translated closest to or directly from the original languages of the texts? [duplicate]

I have for some time now looked at many versions of the Bible to come to the conclusion that most of the translations that try to interpret the text from the original Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek ...
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5answers
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What were the translators of the LXX thinking in rendering “virgin” in Isaiah 7:14?

Obviously we can not know for certain what they were thinking, but with some knowledge about ancient interpretations of this text and the translation philosophy employed by the LXX, I suspect someone ...
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2answers
937 views

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac (Aramaic): ...
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3answers
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What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
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4answers
852 views

In Genesis 28:13, is the Lord above or beside Jacob?

In the "Jacob's ladder" passage, some translations say that "the Lord stood above [the stairway]" (ESV, NASB, ISV, others - this seems to be the more common translation), while ...
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2answers
668 views

Who made the election in 1 Thessalonians 1:4? Election of what?

Different English translations translate this verse (1 Thessalonians 1:4) as follows: Knowing, brethren beloved, your election of God. (KJV) knowing, beloved brethren, your election by God. (NKJV)...
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1answer
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key (...

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